Đề thi giữa kì 1 Tiếng anh 12 năm 2026 THPT Nguyễn Trãi – Đà Nẵng là tài liệu ôn luyện chất lượng dành cho học sinh lớp 12, được THPT Nguyễn Trãi – Đà Nẵng biên soạn cho năm học 2025 – 2026 nhằm phục vụ công tác kiểm tra định kỳ và hỗ trợ học sinh xây dựng lộ trình ôn thi tốt nghiệp THPT hiệu quả. Nội dung đề thi tập trung vào những chuyên đề trọng tâm của chương trình Tiếng Anh 12 như ngữ pháp, từ vựng, kỹ năng nghe hiểu, đọc hiểu và viết câu theo ngữ cảnh thực tế. Bên cạnh việc củng cố kiến thức nền tảng, tài liệu còn giúp học sinh nâng cao khả năng phản xạ ngoại ngữ, rèn kỹ năng chọn đáp án chính xác và quản lý thời gian làm bài thông qua các dạng đề GHK1 lớp 12 môn Tiếng anh thường gặp trong chương trình học hiện nay. Đồng thời, đây cũng là nguồn tham khảo hữu ích cho quá trình luyện tập chuyên sâu với các dạng đề lớp 12 môn Tiếng anh giúp học sinh tự tin hơn trước các kỳ thi quan trọng.
Tại dethitracnghiem.vn, học sinh có thể trải nghiệm hệ thống luyện thi trực tuyến hiện đại với giao diện thân thiện, thao tác đơn giản và hỗ trợ làm bài không giới hạn số lần. Sau khi nộp bài, các em có thể xem đáp án chi tiết để đối chiếu kết quả, đánh giá năng lực và theo dõi mức độ tiến bộ qua từng lần luyện tập. Website đặc biệt phù hợp cho học sinh lớp 12 trong giai đoạn tăng tốc ôn thi năm 2026 nhờ kho tài liệu phong phú và hệ thống câu hỏi được phân hóa từ cơ bản đến nâng cao. Việc luyện tập thường xuyên với các dạng đề ôn thi lớp 12 sẽ giúp học sinh làm quen cấu trúc đề thực tế, nâng cao kỹ năng xử lý câu hỏi nhanh và tiết kiệm thời gian ôn tập môn Tiếng Anh hiệu quả.
ĐỀ THI
LINK PDF ĐỀ THI [gồm ĐỀ THI, ĐÁP ÁN, LỜI GIẢI]:
Dưới đây là nội dung chi tiết của đề kiểm tra Giữa học kỳ I môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12
– Trường THPT Nguyễn Trãi, Hội An (Mã đề 801) được trích xuất từ hình ảnh:
SỞ GD&ĐT ĐÀ NẴNG
TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRÃI – HỘI AN
(Đề thi có 5 trang)
KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ I – NĂM HỌC 2025 – 2026
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 12
Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
Code: 801
I. LISTENING (2.5 points)
PART 1: Listen to a talk about Walt Disney’s life. Decide whether the following
statements are True (T) or False (F).
Question 1: Walt Disney’s first film company was very profitable.
A. True
B. False
Question 2: Mickey Mouse was an instant success and became the world’s most
popular cartoon character.
A. True
B. False
Question 3: Snow White and the Seven Dwarfs was Walt Disney’s first film.
A. True
B. False
Question 4: Walt Disney won 26 Oscars throughout his career, which is a record.
A. True
B. False
Question 5: Walt Disney was still alive when The Walt Disney Studios continued
making high-quality live-action films.
A. True
B. False
PART 2: Listen to an interview. What do Minh and Mai think about Halloween?
Choose the letter A, B, C or D.
Question 6: Minh is helping his classmates with ____________ for Halloween.
A. organizing a Halloween costume contest
B. creating a haunted house
C. preparing a trick-or-treat event
D. hosting a Halloween party
Question 7: Minh finds Halloween interesting bởi vì ______________________.
A. he is interested in the origin of Halloween
B. he enjoys attending Halloween parties
C. he likes trick-or-treating
D. he loves dressing up in costumes
Question 8: Minh says Halloween is believed to have originated in
_________________.
A. France
B. The United States
C. The United Kingdom
D. Ireland
Question 9: Mai thinks Halloween is _________________ in Viet Nam.
A. very interesting
B. too scary
C. a waste of time
D. too boring
Question 10: Mai believes that many people worry that our ________ will be
ruined by international festivals. Our ________ haven’t lost their appeal.
A. cultural activities/ festivals
B. culture/ traditional festivals
C. festivals / cultural activities
D. traditional festivals / culture
II. LANGUAGE (2.5 points)
PART 1: Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D that best
fits each of the numbered blanks.
Brazil is home to the largest population in Latin America, of more than 215
million people. Most of them live in the south-central area, (11) ______
includes the industrial cities of Sao Paulo, Rio de Janeiro, and Belo Horizonte.
The pace of urbanisation has been rapid, with 75% of the population living in
(12) ______ areas by 1991. While this growth has contributed to economic
development, it has also led to serious (13) ______ , environmental, and
political challenges in major cities. Nevertheless, Brazil remains famous for
its breathtaking natural beauty.
The Brazilian population is (14) _________ four main groups: the Portuguese, who
colonised Brazil in the 16th century: Africans who (15) _________ brought to
Brazil as slaves: various other European, Middle Eastern, and Asian immigrant
groups who have settled in Brazil since the mid-19th century, and the indigenous
people. Although the Portuguese were once the dominant European ethnic group in
Brazil, waves of immigration have resulted in (16) ________ diverse ethnic and
cultural heritage.
Question 11. A. which | B. who | C. whose | D. that
Question 12. A. country | B. city | C. rural | D. urban
Question 13. A. society | B. social | C. socially | D. sociable
Question 14. A. consisted of | B. made up of | C. included in | D. made from
Question 15. A. has been | B. was | C. were | D. had been
Question 16. A. a | B. an | C. the | D. Ø
PART 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 17. Calculating your carbon footprint is necessary, _______ allows you
to understand your effect on the environment.
A. who | B. which | C. that | D. where
Question 18. To avoid culture shock, learn about the _____ and behaviour of
local people in advance.
A. experiences | B. cultures | C. performances | D. customs
Question 19. Scientists have worked ______ some promising solutions to water
pollution in big cities.
A. up | B. with | C. out | D. in
Question 20. Vo Thi Sau _______ attacks against French colonial forces, becoming
a symbol of resistance and courage in Vietnam’s struggle for independence.
A. got over | B. carried on | C. carried out | D. went on
III. READING (2.5 points)
PART 1: Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D that best
fits each of the numbered blanks.
Culture shock refers to feelings of (21) ___________ or anxiety that people may
have when experiencing a new and different culture. Culture shock can be caused
by language barriers, unfamiliar lifestyles, different climate, or strange food.
For example, visitors to the US find it hard to get used to the local tipping
culture. (22) ___________, tipping in Japan can be considered rude and even
insulting in many situations.
The best way to (23) __________ culture shock is to start learning about the new
culture before moving there. You should try to focus on the positive aspects of
your new experiences and keep an open mind. Learning about cultural diversity
helps understand different ways of thinking about the world, (24) __________ new
knowledge and experiences, and promote personal growth.
Research says that almost two-thirds to three-quarters of the world drive on the
right, while only one-third to a quarter of the world drive on the left
including the UK and Australia. Or you may find out that things that you’re used
to are banned in (25) ____________ country. In Singapore, for example, the sale
of chewing gum is illegal and Singaporeans take this law very seriously.
Question 21. A. confusing | B. confused | C. confusion | D. confuse
Question 22. A. By contrast | B. Therefore | C. Additionally | D. Moreover
Question 23. A. expand | B. navigate | C. thrive | D. overcome
Question 24. A. take | B. get | C. reach | D. gain
Question 25. A. others | B. another | C. other | D. the other
PART 2: Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D.
Amy Carter-James is small, blue-eyed and blonde, with a friendly smile. She
doesn’t look like she could change the lives of thousands of people but,
remarkably, she has. It all started when Amy took a gap year in Africa after she
finished university. ‘I spent eight months volunteering in a very poor rural
school in Kenya,’ she says. ‘That was the first time I saw poverty, I was so
young and so easily inspired and I thought, “Why can’t tourism do the same thing
for community development?”
On her return to England, twenty-two-year-old Amy and her boyfriend Neal decided
to drive across Mozambique, one of the poorest countries in Africa, but it
wasn’t exactly a holiday. Once there, the couple got off the beaten track and
headed for Quirimbas National Park, where they found a tiny stretch of white
sand close to a village called Guludo. Life in Guludo was hard: there was little
clean water and not enough food. Healthcare was poor and people in the village
had a life expectancy of thirty-eight years. Amy and Neal had no qualifications
in tourism or healthcare but they had common sense, enthusiasm and
determination. They talked to the villagers about their plan to create a small
beach resort which would provide employment for people and lift families out of
poverty.
The couple set to work on a beach lodge, building beach huts from local
materials and employing people from the surrounding area. Once the lodge was
complete, they set up a charitable foundation called NEMA, which received 5% of
its revenue. This money was used to create clean water points, fund healthcare
projects, build two primary schools and support conservation projects – it
helped to enhance the lives of thousands of people.
Question 26. According to paragraph 1, what is NOT indicated about Amy
Carter-James?
A. She was deeply affected by the poverty she witnessed.
B. Her abilities to transform lives are often doubted.
C. She believes tourism can help improve poor communities.
D. She spent time teaching in a rural school in Kenya.
Question 27. The phrase “got off the beaten track” in paragraph 2 mostly means
________.
A. explored a lesser-known path
B. stayed away from a remote area
C. opted for a tourist spot
D. engaged in a meaningful activity
Question 28. The word “its” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. money | B. NEMA | C. the lodge | D. the surrounding area
Question 29. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Despite having no experience, Amy and Neal managed to eradicate poverty in
Guludo.
B. The funds from NEMA were used to address critical needs in the community.
C. Life expectancy in Guludo was low, which contributed to poor overall health.
D. The most important aspect of NEMA is to engage tourists in the locals’ lives.
Question 30. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Amy and Neal’s initiative shows that tourism is always a force for
positivity.
B. The villagers in Guludo are uncertain about the impact of NEMA on their
lives.
C. Amy and Neal have completely transformed our perceptions of the tourist
industry.
D. NEMA has brought tangible relief and a sense of optimism to the villagers.
IV. WRITING (2.5 points)
PART 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 31. Protecting the environment is up to everyone doing small things
every day.
A. Protecting the environment prepares for everyone doing small things every
day.
B. Protecting the environment depends on everyone doing small things every day.
C. Protecting the environment refers to everyone doing small things every day.
D. Protecting the environment asks for everyone doing small things every day.
Question 32. During his visit to Korea, my brother bought a lot of souvenirs.
A. As my brother visited to Korea, he bought a lot of souvenirs.
B. My brother was visiting to Korea and he bought a lot of souvenirs.
C. While my brother was visiting Korea, he bought a lot of souvenirs.
D. My brother was visiting Korea, he bought a lot of souvenirs.
PART 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D that best combines each pair of sentences.
Question 33. Air pollution levels have increased in many countries. This is also
linked to biodiversity loss.
A. Air pollution levels have increased in many countries, which is also linked
to biodiversity loss.
B. Air pollution levels have increased in many countries, but this is also
linked to biodiversity loss.
C. As air pollution levels have increased in many countries, this is also linked
to biodiversity loss.
D. Air pollution levels have increased in many countries, that is also linked to
biodiversity loss.
Question 34. Mr Andrew responded to my letter right away. I appreciated that
very much.
A. Mr Andrew responded to my letter right away so that I appreciated very much.
B. As Mr Andrew responded to my letter right away, I appreciated that very much.
C. Mr Andrew responded to my letter right away, which was appreciated very much.
D. Mr Andrew responded to my letter right away, I appreciated that very much.
PART 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct arrangement of the
sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter.
Question 35.
a. Finally, doing exercise daily helps in producing cells in the hippocampus,
which helps you to learn and control memory.
b. In addition, it helps in developing your muscles. It also helps in improving
the oxygen level and blood flow of the body.
c. First of all, it helps in maintaining your weight.
d. Exercise has a lot of benefits in today’s world.
e. Moreover, it helps you reduce weight if you are overweight.
A. b – e – d – a – c | B. d – e – c – b – a | C. d – a – b – e – c | D. d – c –
e – b – a
Question 36.
a. I look forward to hearing from you.
b. I want to help you welcome guests and visitors to the office and receive and
sort donations.
c. Dear Sir or Madam, I am writing to apply for a volunteer position at the head
office.
d. If my application is successful, I can start on 15th January 2022.
e. Yours faithfully,
f. I heard the announcement about this position on radio last Sunday.
A. c – f – d – a – b – e | B. c – a – f – b – d – e | C. c – f – b – d – a – e |
D. c – b – f – a – d – e
Question 37.
a. Although rivers look clean, they sometimes have chemicals that come from
farms where farmers grow food.
b. Pollution is a big problem that affects many places where people live.
c. People who live near busy roads get more pollution because many cars drive
past their homes all day.
d. When factories make things, they often release smoke that goes into the air
which we breathe every day.
e. If we want to stay healthy, we should learn about the pollution in our area
so that we can protect ourselves.
A. c-a-d-b-e | B. a-b-d-c-e | C. a-b-c-d-e | D. b-d-c-a-e
Question 38.
a. Do I have to take a university entrance exam?
b. In addition, what type of accommodation is available for international
students?
c. Dear Kevin, I am writing to ask for some information and advice on higher
education in your country.
d. First, what are the university entry requirements for international students
in the UK?
e. What is the rent for each type of accommodation? Is it monthly or weekly
paid?
f. I look forward to hearing from you soon. Best regards.
A. c-d-e-b-a-f | B. c-d-a-b-e-f | C. c-e-b-d-a-f | D. c-a-d-b-e-f
Question 39.
a. Moreover, the area is famous for its magnificent landscape of limestone
mountain tops surrounded by valleys and steep rocks.
b. First, the most outstanding feature of Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is
its cultural value with a long lasting history dating back almost 30,000 years.
c. The natural beauty of the place with its geological value is another
outstanding feature.
d. Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is famous for its cultural value, natural
beauty and preservation of heritage.
e. Finally, Trang An Heritage is well-preserved and protected as the site is
home to more than 800 species of flora and fauna.
A. b-c-a-d-e | B. b-c-a-e-d | C. d-b-c-a-e | D. d-b-a-c-e
Question 40.
a. Thirdly, and most importantly, it is said that people tend to remember
only 10-20% of what they read or hear.
b. In this paragraph, I’m going to discuss a few reasons why practice is
important to mastering skills.
c. Firstly, the only way to truly learn a skill is by actually doing what you’ll
have to do in the real world.
d. In conclusion, following up explanation with practice is key to mastering a
skill.
e. Secondly, I think practice can be a fun way of putting in the necessary
hours.
A. c – d – e – a – b | B. c – e – b – d – a | C. b – c – d – a – e | D. b – c –
e – a – d
THE END
