Bài tập trắc nghiệm Kinh tế vĩ mô bằng Tiếng Anh

Năm thi: 2023
Môn học: Kinh tế vĩ mô
Trường: Tổng hợp
Người ra đề: Tổng hợp
Hình thức thi: Trắc nghiệm
Loại đề thi: Thi qua môn
Độ khó: Trung bình
Thời gian thi: 60 phút
Số lượng câu hỏi: 44
Đối tượng thi: Sinh viên
Năm thi: 2023
Môn học: Kinh tế vĩ mô
Trường: Tổng hợp
Người ra đề: Tổng hợp
Hình thức thi: Trắc nghiệm
Loại đề thi: Thi qua môn
Độ khó: Trung bình
Thời gian thi: 60 phút
Số lượng câu hỏi: 44
Đối tượng thi: Sinh viên

Mục Lục

Trắc nghiệm kinh tế vĩ mô bằng tiếng anh là bài tập trắc nghiệm dành cho các trường đại học giảng dạy môn học Kinh tế vĩ mô bằng tiếng anh. Nội dung bài tập này được xây dựng bằng những câu hỏi xoay quanh các kiến thức về Kinh tế vĩ mô từ cơ bản đến nâng cao, phù hợp cho các bạn sinh viên đang học môn Kinh tế vĩ mô bằng tiếng anh và muốn ôn thi. Hãy cùng dethitracnghiem.vn khám phá bài tập này nhé!

Bài tập trắc nghiệm Kinh tế vĩ mô bằng Tiếng Anh có đáp án

1. Modern macroeconomics emerged from
A. the budget and current account deficits.
B. the Great Depression.
C. the productivity growth slowdown.
D. hyperinflation.

2. Potential GDP
A. is cyclical.
B. measures the output that could be produced if the economy was fully employed.
C. measures the actual production from year to year.
D. Both answers A and C are correct

3. In any year, the real GDP of an economy
A. always equals potential GDP.
B. must always be less than potential GDP.
C. will always be greater than potential GDP because of the tendency of developed nations to incur inflation.
D. may be greater or less than potential GDP.

4. The four parts of the business cycle occur in the following order:
A. recession, trough, peak, expansion.
B. recession, trough, expansion, peak.
C. expansion, trough, peak, recession.
D. expansion, trough, recession, peak.

5. A recession is a time when
A. real GDP increases and usually unemployment falls.
B. real GDP decreases and usually unemployment falls.
C. real GDP decreases and usually unemployment rises.
D. real GDP increases and usually unemployment rises.

6. What term is used to describe the lowest point of a business cycle?
A. expansion
B. recession
C. peak
D. trough

7. The unemployment rate measures the number of unemployed
A. as a percentage of the labor force.
B. as a percentage of the whole population.
C. who lost their jobs in the current year.
D. including discouraged workers.

8. Inflation is
A. indicated by a rise in the price level.
B. a general increase in the purchasing power of the monetary unit.
C. an economic condition which results in the waste of resources.
D. All of the above answers are correct.

9. When the inflation rate is negative, an economy experiences
A. deflation.
B. stagflation.
C. an increase in the price level.
D. hyperinflation.

10. By definition, a government budget deficit is the situation that occurs when
A. the government spends money on things which do not produce revenue, such as schools.
B. the government miscalculated how much it will receive in taxes.
C. the economy goes into a recession.
D. the government spends more than it receives in taxes.

11. What are the challenges for macroeconomic policy?
A. reduce the international deficit
B. stabilize the business cycle
C. reduce unemployment
D. All of the above answers are correct.

12. Monetary policy is defined as
A. making changes in tax rates and changing the amount of money in the economy.
B. changing interest rates and government spending.
C. making changes in tax rates and government spending.
D. changing interest rates and changing the amount of money in the economy.

13. Monetary policy is controlled by which of the following?
A. the Federal Trade Commission
B. the Interstate Commerce Commission
C. the U.S. Congress and the president
D. the U.S. Federal Reserve

14. Gross domestic product (GDP) measures the
A. number of final goods and services produced in the economy in a given time period.
B. market value of old and new final goods and services sold in the economy in a given time period.
C. number of final goods and services sold in the economy in a given time period.
D. market value of final goods and services produced in the economy in a given time period.

15. Intermediate goods are excluded from GDP because
A. the premise of the question is incorrect because intermediate goods are directly included in calculating GDP.
B. their inclusion would involve double counting.
C. their inclusion would understate GDP
D. they represent goods that have never been purchased so they cannot be counted.

16. If we import more than we export from the rest of the world we
A. are running a trade surplus.
B. must borrow an equal amount from the rest of the world.
C. are helping to finance investment in the rest of the world.
D. can lend an equal amount to the rest of the world.

17. U.S. investment is financed from
A. private saving, government budget deficits and borrowing from the rest of the world.
B. private saving and borrowing from the rest of the world only.
C. private borrowing, government budget deficits and lending to the rest of the world.
D. private saving, government budget surpluses and borrowing from the rest of the world.

18. Economists define investment as the
A. purchase of stocks and bonds.
B. purchase of raw land for later resale.
C. purchase of equipment, plants, and inventories.
D. difference between people’s income and their spending.

19. Net investment is
A. gross investment plus depreciation.
B. capital consumption plus depreciation.
C. depreciation minus the amount of gross investment.
D. gross investment minus depreciation.

20. Depreciation is
A. the part of investment that is equal to all the existing capital stock.
B. equivalent to the value of factors purchased by producers.
C. included in net interest in the income approach to calculating GDP.
D. the decrease in the value of capital from wear and tear.

21. Which, if any, of the following causes reported GDP to be less than total economic production?
A. the exclusion of household production
B. the inclusion of government purchases
C. the exclusion of government transfers
D. All of the above cause reported GDP to be less than total production.

22. Which population category includes only the sum of employed and unemployed people?
A. young and institutionalized
B. working-age population
C. labor force
D. not in the labor force

23. Including discouraged workers in the calculation of the unemployment rate would
A. lower the reported rate.
B. increase the reported rate.
C. not change the reported rate.
D. change the reported rate, but in an unpredictable manner.

24. Unemployment can arise from
A. people losing their jobs.
B. people entering or reentering the labor force.
C. people voluntarily quitting their jobs.
D. All of the above answers are correct.

25. The three types of unemployment are
A. frictional, part-time, and involuntary.
B. voluntary, part-time, and cyclical.
C. voluntary, involuntary, and structural.
D. frictional, structural, and cyclical.

26. An individual is structurally unemployed if
A. the individual quits a job in order to search for a better one.
B. the individual wants to work just during certain months of the year.
C. the individual lacks marketable job skills because technology has changed.
D. there is a recession and the individual is laid off.

27. Full employment means that
A. there is no cyclical or frictional unemployment.
B. no one is unemployed.
C. there is no cyclical unemployment.
D. there is no structural or frictional unemployment.

28. The quantity of real GDP supplied at different price levels is reflected by the
A. total expenditures.
B. aggregate demand curve.
C. real wealth effect.
D. aggregate supply curve.

29. The long-run aggregate supply curve is vertical because
A. at full employment prices are stable.
B. the money wage rate increases faster than the price level.
C. potential GDP is independent of the price level.
D. there is no cyclical inflation.

30. With an increase in the capital stock, the short-run aggregate supply curve
A. becomes steeper.
B. shifts leftward.
C. shifts rightward.
D. remains as it is.

31. An increase in the price level causes
A. consumption expenditures to decrease.
B. a movement along the aggregate demand curve.
C. a wealth effect.
D. All of the above answers are correct.

32. Which of the following changes would NOT shift the aggregate demand curve?
A. a change in expectations about future income
B. a change in fiscal policy
C. a change in monetary policy
D. an increase in technology

33. Which of the following shifts the aggregate demand curve rightward?
A. an increase in the quantity of money
B. an increase in the exchange rate
C. an increase in the tax rate
D. a decrease in the price level

34. If the economy is in short run equilibrium then
A. real GDP equals potential GDP.
B. real GDP cannot be equal to potential GDP.
C. real GDP can be greater than, less than, or equal to potential GDP.
D. nominal GDP equals potential GDP.

35. A short-run macroeconomic equilibrium occurs
A. when the rate at which prices increase equals the rate at which resource prices increase.
B. at the intersection of the short-run aggregate supply curve, the long-run aggregate supply curve, and the aggregate demand curve.
C. at the intersection of the short-run aggregate supply curve and the aggregate demand curve.
D. at the intersection of the short-run aggregate supply curve and the long-run aggregate supply curve.

36. A recessionary gap occurs when
A. nominal GDP is less than potential GDP.
B. high rates of inflation occur.
C. real GDP is below potential GDP.
D. nominal GDP is above potential GDP.

37. An above full-employment equilibrium is
A. the equilibrium in which the economy is in most of the time.
B. the period of time when prices are falling.
C. the short-term period when real GDP exceeds potential GDP.
D. theoretical possibility but cannot happen in reality.

38. Assume the economy is at long run equilibrium and oil prices rise. As a result, the ________ shifts ________.
A. SAS; rightward
B. AD; rightward
C. SAS; leftward
D. AD; leftward

39. A nominal variable is
A. the same as a real variable.
B. always measured by subtracting the inflation rate from the real variable.
C. a variable which measures the standard of living.
D. a variable that has not been adjusted for changes in inflation.

40. Full employment corresponds to
A. being at the point where the marginal product of labor equals zero.
B. labor demand being higher than labor supply and real GDP being equal to potential GDP.
C. equilibrium in the labor market, and real GDP exceeding potential GDP.
D. equilibrium in the labor market, with real GDP being equal to potential GDP.

41. Which of the following approximately equals the real interest rate?
A. the rate paid when the best customers of banks borrow money
B. the nominal interest rate plus the inflation rate
C. the nominal interest rate minus the inflation rate
D. the nominal interest rate minus the growth rate of GDP

42. Which of the following is money?
A. credit cards
B. checks in the checkbook
C. checking deposits
D. All of the above are money.

43. The major difference between M1 and M2 is that
A. M2 is a stock variable while M1 is a flow variable.
B. M1 is a stock variable while M2 is a flow variable.
C. traveler’s checks are part of M1.
D. time deposits and savings deposits are included in M2.

44. Which of the following is true regarding the required reserve ratio?
A. The ratio is only enforced against banks that are operating in a risky manner.
B. The ratio determines the amount of excess reserves a bank must hold.
C. The ratio determines the legally required amount of reserves a bank must hold.
D. None of the above answers is correct.

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