Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – Sở GD Quảng Bình là một trong những đề tiêu biểu thuộc Tổng hợp đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh THPT QG, nằm trong chương trình Đề thi vào Đại học.. Đây là đề thi do Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo tỉnh Quảng Bình tổ chức dành cho học sinh lớp 12 trên địa bàn, nhằm giúp các em làm quen với định dạng đề thi chính thức của kỳ thi Tốt nghiệp THPT Quốc gia năm 2025.
Đề thi được thiết kế bám sát theo cấu trúc đề minh họa của Bộ GD&ĐT, bao gồm các phần trọng tâm: phát âm – trọng âm, ngữ pháp – từ vựng, chức năng giao tiếp, tìm lỗi sai, viết lại câu và đọc hiểu. Với hệ thống câu hỏi được phân tầng rõ ràng từ mức độ nhận biết đến vận dụng cao, đề thi không chỉ giúp học sinh ôn luyện toàn diện kiến thức tiếng Anh mà còn phát triển kỹ năng tư duy, phân tích và xử lý thông tin nhanh chóng.
Hãy cùng Dethitracnghiem.vn tiếp cận đề thi thử từ Sở GD Quảng Bình và luyện tập ngay hôm nay để vững vàng bước vào kỳ thi Tốt nghiệp THPT năm 2025!
- Số trang: 4 trang
- Hình thức: Trắc nghiệm
- Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2025 SỞ GD QUẢNG BÌNH
Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
SMARTPHONES
Smartphones have become an essential part of our daily lives, (1)_____ a variety of apps that can help us with various tasks. One particularly (2)_____ is Gantt, which allows users to create to-do lists and set reminders for important deadlines. The app provides users with a well-organized way (3)_____ tasks effectively. (4)_____ this app, users can easily (5)_____ their schedules, making it simpler to keep track of what needs to be done. Many people also enjoy the feature that allows them to check their progress daily, which can be very (6)_____. It’s a useful way to ensure that nothing gets overlooked.
(Adapted from Global Perspectives)
Question 1:
A. offered
B. offering
C. to offer
D. is offering
Question 2:
A. a useful smartphone app
B. useful smartphone app
C. smartphone app useful
D. app useful smartphone
Question 3:
A. to organize
B. to organizing
C. to organized
D. organizing
Question 4:
A. To
B. Under
C. With
D. About
Question 5:
A. set
B. pay
C. develop
D. keep
Question 6:
A. motivate
B. motivation
C. motivated
D. motivating
Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
Marketing Executive
We are an organization operating in the healthcare sector for well over a decade and in search of a dynamic, dedicated, and passionate individual to fulfill the aforesaid vacancy.
Requirements:
* Liaising and networking with a range of stakeholders, including customers, colleagues, suppliers, and (7)_____.
* Communicating with target audiences and (8)_____ customer relationships.
* Managing the production of marketing materials, including leaflets, posters, and flyers.
* Arranging the effective (9)_____ of marketing materials.
* Conducting market research, (10)_____ using customer questionnaires and focus groups.
* That helps reduce the (11)_____ of unnecessary advertisements.
* Supporting the marketing manager in monitoring competitor (12)_____.
(Adapted from Marketing Magazine)
Question 7:
A. others
B. other
C. the others
D. another
Question 8:
A. giving in
B. building up
C. passing out
D. turning off
Question 9:
A. distribution
B. development
C. exposure
D. method
Question 10:
A. therefore
B. for example
C. in case of
D. as long as
Question 11:
A. programs
B. factors
C. solutions
D. activities
Question 12:
A. programs
B. factors
C. solutions
D. activities
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13:
a. Mai: No, I don’t. Shall we do something together?
b. Ann: Yes, I’d love to. How about going to a music show? Let me check the weekend programme at the Modern Arts Centre.
c. Ann: Do you have any plans for this Saturday evening?
A. b-a-c
B. a-c-b
C. c-b-a
D. c-a-b
Question 14:
a. Mai: Yes, I do! What can we do?
b. Tom: Exactly! And we should recycle paper and bottles. It’s important for the Earth.
c. Tom: We can use reusable bags when we shop. It helps reduce plastic waste.
d. Tom: Hi, Mary! Do you want to help the environment?
e. Mary: That’s a good idea! We can also turn off the lights when we leave a room.
A. a-b-c-d-e
B. a-b-c-d-e
C. d-a-c-e-b
D. d-e-a-c-b
Question 15:
Dear Mr. John,
a. I am attaching the Resume in the prescribed form and the soft copies of my certificates.
b. I am a graduate in Journalism and have experience as Blog Writer in a reputable website.
c. I am looking forward to your reply.
d. I am writing this mail in response to the advertisement on your website for the recruitment of a Content Writer.
e. I would like to offer my candidature for the same.
Respectfully,
Jojo George
A. a-d-e-b-c
B. a-d-c-e-b
C. d-e-b-a-c
D. a-b-e-d
Question 16:
a. While managing large teams and coordinating multiple tasks can be challenging, the sense of accomplishment when a project is completed successfully is truly rewarding.
b. I started my journey in project management five years ago, where I quickly developed a passion for overseeing complex projects.
c. My ability to communicate clearly with clients and colleagues is one of my greatest strengths in this role.
d. I have honed my skills through various leadership training programs and by handling diverse projects across industries.
e. In conclusion, my experience in leading teams and delivering results under tight deadlines has shaped me into a well-rounded project manager.
A. a-c-d-b-e
B. b-c-a-d-e
C. b-c-d-a-e
D. d-b-a-c-e
Question 17:
a. Luckily, soon after the Great Smog, the government created the Clean Air Act to reduce the level of pollution across the country.
b. Pollution from fires and traffic remained in the air, causing Londoners to endure thick smog for hundreds of years.
c. However, the Great Smog of 1952 was the worst one ever because it was so thick and so dark that drivers could not see the lights of other cars, people walked into each other on the streets, and nobody could see the sun.
d. In early December 1952, the weather in London was very cold with little wind.
e. In their houses, people lit fires to stay warm, and on the streets, they took cars, buses, to train to work.
A. a-b-c-d-e
B. d-c-a-b-e
C. d-e-c-b-a
D. d-e-b-c-a
Read the following passage about Vietnamese Family Day and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
Vietnamese Family Day is not an official national holiday, but it is very popular and widely celebrated throughout the country. Its aim is to honour and spread traditional family values, and provide an opportunity for family members to get together, (18)_____.
Viet Nam, as a nation, prides itself on preserving its core cultural ideals, with a profound emphasis on the enduring values of family loyalty and harmony. In Vietnamese culture, the family is viewed as a unit, and children are expected to demonstrate the utmost respect to their parents. Established on June 28th, 2001 by the Deputy Prime Minister, (19)_____.
Various cultural activities are organised in cities all across Viet Nam. This year’s celebrations are themed ‘Peaceful Family, Happy Society’, and include sports, cooking and singing contests. The event will also feature educational seminars on family values and parenting skills, as well as workshops on financial planning and career development. Families can participate in fun games and activities such as scavenger hunts, obstacle courses, and relay races (20)_____. The highlight of the day will be a concert featuring popular local artists, where families can enjoy live music performances and spend quality time together. (21)_____.
The event is also seen as an opportunity to reflect on the importance of family and its role in shaping individuals and society. It encourages quality time together, strengthens bonds, and helps pass down cultural heritage and traditions from one generation to the next. Through these activities, Vietnamese Family Day promotes a sense of unity and togetherness, reinforcing the values that have held families and communities together for centuries. (22)_____.
Question 18:
A. and also connect with their cultural roots
B. yet it is very popular throughout the southern provinces
C. which replaces all other national holidays
D. and which replaces all other national holidays
Question 19:
A. a Family Day was established on June 28th, 2001, by the Deputy Prime Minister
B. a Family Day was established on June 28th, 2001, by the Deputy Prime Minister
C. it is a day where people have more free time
D. the Vietnamese government thought that Family Day is an international holiday
Question 20:
A. and also connect with their cultural roots
B. yet it is very popular throughout the southern provinces
C. which replaces all other national holidays
D. and which replaces all other national holidays
Question 21:
A. The recent celebrations are themed ‘Peaceful Family, Happy Society’ this year
B. The government has chosen the theme ‘Modern Families, Stronger Nation’ this year
C. The theme for this year’s event focuses mainly on financial independence
D. The event will also include mandatory training for parents on how to raise children
Question 22:
A. The most of the activities during Family Day are strictly for children under 12 years old
B. The event will also feature educational seminars on family values and parenting skills
C. There will be limited access to parenting seminars due to high registration fees
D. The event aims to provide a platform for families to connect with each other and celebrate their cultural heritage
Read the following passage about single-use plastics and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
Single-use plastics have become a major environmental issue in recent years. These plastics, designed to be used once and then discarded, include items like plastic bags, straws, cutlery, and water bottles. They are cheap, convenient, and durable, making them popular for various everyday applications. However, their widespread use and careless disposal have led to severe pollution. The oceans, in particular, are heavily affected by plastic waste, where millions of tons of plastic accumulate each year, harming marine life and ecosystems.
A significant concern with single-use plastics is that they are not biodegradable. Instead, they break down into tiny particles known as microplastics, which persist in the environment for hundreds of years. These microplastics can enter the food chain, affecting not only marine animals but also humans who consume seafood. Research has shown that microplastics are now present in a variety of foods and beverages, raising health concerns for consumers worldwide.
To address the issue, some governments and organizations have implemented policies to reduce single-use plastic consumption. For example, many countries now impose charges on plastic bags or have banned their use entirely. Some companies are also developing eco-friendly alternatives, such as biodegradable plastics or reusable items. These measures aim to encourage people to make more sustainable choices and reduce their environmental impact.
Technology and innovation also play a role in tackling plastic pollution. Scientists are working on new ways to break down plastics more effectively or create materials that decompose naturally. For instance, enzymes that digest plastics have been discovered, and researchers are exploring how to use these enzymes on a larger scale. With continuous efforts, there is hope that the detrimental effects of single-use plastics can be mitigated in the future.
Question 23: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a type of single-use plastic?
A. Water bottles
B. Cutlery
C. Food containers
D. Plastic bags
Question 24: The word “discarded” in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.
A. disposed
B. wasted
C. reused
D. dumped
Question 25: The word “persist” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.
A. diminish
B. remain
C. disappear
D. emerge
Question 26: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3? “To address the issue, some governments and organizations have implemented policies to reduce single-use plastic consumption.”
A. Some countries encourage reusable plastic by law.
B. Governments and organizations have taken steps to decrease the use of single-use plastics.
C. Companies are looking for more eco-friendly plastic options.
D. Sustainable products have replaced single-use plastics.
Question 27: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Enzymes could potentially break down plastics more efficiently.
B. No solution exists for reducing single-use plastic consumption
C. Plastic waste is harmless to marine life.
D. Microplastics completely break down in a few years.
Question 28: In which paragraph does the writer mention the impacts of microplastics on human?
A. Paragraph 3
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 4
D. Paragraph 1
Question 29: In which paragraph does the writer discuss scientific efforts to address plastic pollution?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 4
C. Paragraph 2
D. Paragraph 3
Question 30: The word “detrimental” in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. permanent
B. temporary
C. beneficial
D. severe
Read the following passage about teenagers and social media and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Safety for teens on social media, a crucial concern in today’s digital age, requires awareness and responsibility. Social media, whose popularity among young users continues to grow, (31)_____. Having become widely accessible, (32)_____. One key aspect of safety is privacy settings. (33)_____. Teens should understand how to manage these settings, protecting themselves from potential threats. Educators and parents, playing vital roles in this process, can teach young users the importance of online boundaries and the risks of oversharing. (34)_____. By developing responsible habits, such as critical thinking about content and avoiding unknown connections, they can enjoy social media while minimizing risks. Equipped with knowledge and guidance, (35)_____, ensuring their safety and well-being online.
Question 31:
A. that brings opportunities to connect but presents risks of exposure to harmful content
B. offers both opportunities for connection and risks of exposure to harmful content
C. bringing both opportunities for connection and risks of exposure to harmful content
D. which provides both connection opportunities and risks of exposure to harmful content
Question 32:
A. challenges posed by these platforms make it harder for teens to realise
B. these platforms present challenges that teens may not always recognise
C. presenting challenges for teens isn’t always evident in these platforms
D. teens may fail to comprehend what challenges these platforms pose
Question 33:
A. restricted the visibility of personal information
B. which can limit the visibility of personal information
C. whose limitation of the visibility of personal information
D. made the visibility of personal information restricted
Question 34:
A. Teens can build a positive online presence to learn to navigate social media safely
B. Learning to navigate social media safely helps teens build a positive online presence
C. Building a positive online presence, it is important to navigate social media safely
D. Navigating social media safely can be developed without a positive online presence
Question 35:
A. teens are better prepared to handle the digital world responsibly
B. responsibly handling the digital world requires better preparation
C. preparing to handle the digital world responsibly is easier for teens
D. preparation for teens to handle the digital world responsibly is easier
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 36 to 40.
Question 36:
a. Mai: No, I don’t. Shall we do something together?
b. Ann: Yes, I’d love to. How about going to a music show? Let me check the weekend programme at the Modern Arts Centre.
c. Ann: Do you have any plans for this Saturday evening?
A. b-a-c
B. a-c-b
C. c-b-a
D. c-a-b
Question 37:
a. Trainer: Good morning. Can I help you with that?
b. Tam: Oh, it’s working. Thank you very much.
c. Tam: Oh, please. I want to change the speed on this treadmill, but I don’t know how.
d. Trainer: You can just press this button. Here, let me show you.
A. a-c-d-b
B. a-d-c-b
C. c-a-d-b
D. a-c-b-d
Question 38:
Dear Sir/Madam,
a. I am writing to apply for the position of Marketing Assistant at your company, as advertised on your website.
b. Thank you for considering my application. I look forward to the opportunity to discuss how I can contribute to your team.
c. My strong communication skills and experience with social media campaigns make me a good fit for this role.
d. I am excited about the possibility of joining your dynamic team and helping to drive your marketing initiatives.
e. I have attached my resume for your review.
Best regards,
(Your Name)
A. a-e-c-d-b
B. a-c-e-d-b
C. a-d-c-e-b
D. a-e-d-c-b
Question 39:
a. While tasks like cleaning enclosures and preparing food are quite repetitive, the reward of seeing the animals thrive makes it all worthwhile.
b. My long-standing passion for animal welfare has led me to volunteer at the shelter, where I find immense fulfillment.
c. Beyond daily care, I assist in coordinating adoption events to help match animals with loving, permanent homes.
d. Over the past year, I have cherished every opportunity at this place, where I contribute to creating a safe and nurturing environment for each animal.
e. Altogether, this experience has instilled in me patience, a strong sense of responsibility, and a deeper appreciation for the welfare of animals.
A. a-c-d-b-e
B. d-c-a-b-e
C. c- d- a- b- e
D. b-d-c-a-e
Question 40:
A. The expansion of agriculture and cattle ranching has destroyed vast areas of forest, leading to significant deforestation.
B. Home to diverse species, the Amazon rainforest has undergone substantial changes in recent years.
C. In addition to forest loss, the development of new roads has narrowed wildlife habitats, affecting biodiversity and migration patterns.
D. This rapid deforestation has not only contributed to habitat destruction but also accelerated carbon emissions, impacting global climate.
E. Although conservation efforts have increased, the Amazon continues to face threats from illegal logging, mining, and land clearing.
A. b-c- a-e-d
B. b-a-d-c-e
C. b-e-d-a-c
D. b-d-c-a-e
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 1 to 8.
Can Your Body Forget How to Digest Meat?
More and more people are choosing to eat less meat. Some do this for health reasons, while others want to help the environment. However, when people stop eating meat for a long time and then try to eat it again, they sometimes feel sick. They may have stomachaches and wonder if their bodies have “forgotten” how to digest meat. Although there is not much scientific research on this, some people believe it happens.
Experts say that even if science doesn’t fully explain this, stomach problems can still occur. However, these issues are not caused by an allergy to meat. True meat allergies are very rare. Sometimes, if vegetarians accidentally eat meat, they might feel sick because they believe it will make them unwell. But normally, the body has no problem digesting meat. It produces special proteins called enzymes, which help break down both meat and plant-based food.
The human body is very flexible. The enzymes used to digest meat also work for vegetables. If someone eats meat regularly, their stomach adapts to that diet. If they start eating meat again, their body will quickly adjust.
It is not true that the body “forgets” how to process meat. When people change their diet, the bacteria in their stomach change too, but their ability to digest protein stays the same. In fact, eating a lot of fiber suddenly can cause more stomach problems than eating meat after a long break.
So there is no need to worry. The body is very good at adjusting to different foods. If someone has stomach problems after eating meat again, the cause is likely something else, not the loss of their ability to digest it.
(Adapted from https://www.bbc.com/)
Question 1: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. health reasons
B. stomachaches
C. bodies
D. people eating less meat
Question 2: The word “occur” in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.
A. finish
B. move
C. change
D. happen
Question 3: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3? “The enzymes used to digest meat also work for vegetables.”
A. Meat and vegetables are digested in completely separate ways.
B. The same digestive substances process both meat and vegetables.
C. Meat and vegetables use different enzymes to be digested.
D. Enzymes that break down meat can hardly break down vegetables.
Question 4: According to the passage, all of the following are factors that can contribute to stomach problems after someone has not eaten meat for a long time, EXCEPT _____.
A. a genuine meat allergy
B. psychological expectations of feeling sick
C. a change in stomach bacteria
D. a sudden increase in fiber intake
Question 5: The word “suddenly” in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. hardly
B. quickly
C. closely
D. slowly
Question 6: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Stomach problems after eating meat again are primarily caused by genuine meat allergies.
B. Human digestion adapts, thus “forgetting” meat is largely unproven.
C. The body will certainly lose some digestive ability after a long period without it.
D. Eating meat after a long break is more serious than increasing fiber intake.
Question 7: Which paragraph does the writer explain why people eat less meat?
A. Paragraph 3
B. Paragraph 1
C. Paragraph 2
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph does the writer discuss how dietary changes affect the bacteria in the stomach?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 9 to 13.
Question 9:
a. Tony: It’s 7:15. We’re on time. Don’t panic.
b. Anna: What time is it? We’re going to be late!
c. Anna: Do we have to be at the restaurant by 7:30? This traffic is going to make us late.
A. a-c-b
B. b-a-c
C. b-c-a
D. c-a-b
Question 10:
a. Doctor: How long have you had these symptoms?
b. Doctor: Hmm. It sounds like you’ve got the flu. Take aspirin every four hours and get much rest.
c. Doctor: What seems to be the problem?
d. Cathy: About three days now. And I’m really tired, too.
e. Cathy: Well, I have a bad cough and a sore throat. I also have a headache.
A. a-c-d-e-b
B. b-d-a-e-c
C. c-e-d-a-b
D. a-d-c-e-b
Question 11:
a. John: Hi Helen.
b. James: Do we need any specific equipment for his class?
c. James: Yes, I heard Professor Adams is really good at teaching the basics.
d. James: Thank you, Lisa.
e. Lisa: Are you planning to take the photography class next semester?
f. Lisa: A DSLR camera is highly recommended, but you can also use a mirrorless camera.
A. d-b-e-c-a
B. e-c-b-f-d-a
C. d-b-e-a
D. c-b-a-e-d
Question 12:
a. While outdoor exercise is beneficial, bad weather can make it difficult, and video games provide a good alternative.
b. These games offer various exercises like basketball, dancing, and water-skiing, allowing players to stay active at home.
c. They are also social and interactive, as friends can play together or compete online.
d. In short, active video games are an enjoyable and practical way to stay fit.
e. Many teenagers enjoy playing active video games, which can be a great way to stay fit.
A. a-b-c-d-e
B. a-b-c-d-e
C. e-a-b-c-d
D. e-c-a-b-d
Question 13:
a. In my opinion, schools should prepare students for adult life. Financial skills such as budget planning and saving money are essential to avoid falling into debt.
b. On the other hand, some people argue that there is no time for extra subjects at school and that life skills should be learnt at home.
c. They believe we already learn many life skills while doing traditional subjects. For example, we learn teamwork by doing group projects, and organizing our homework teaches us time management skills.
d. Nowadays, some schools are teaching life skills as well as traditional subjects. Some people say this prepares students better for life in the real world, whereas others say it is not necessary.
e. It would also be a good idea to learn basic cooking, as this is fundamental for survival when you are living on your own.
A. d-a-e-c-b
B. d-a-c-b-e
C. d-b-c-a-e
D. a-c-e-b-d
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 14 to 18.
Helen Adams Keller was an American author, activist and lecturer. She was the first American deaf and blind person (14)_____. From an early age, she decided to communicate with the world, (15)_____. She became a prolific author, anti-war campaigner and spokeswoman for women’s and worker’s rights. She is also an inspiration to millions.
Helen Keller, born in Alabama in 1880, (16)_____ due to a mysterious illness. She formed a strong bond with her family cook’s daughter, who created a simple sign language to help her communicate. By the time she was seven, Helen had already learned more than 60 signs to talk with her family and realized she could express herself.
In 1887, her mother read Charles Dickens’ book “American Notes” about the successful education of a deaf and blind child, (17)_____. She became Helen’s instructor and friend for the next 49 years. Helen learned Braille and used it to learn French, German, and Greek.
Keller had great ambitions and went on to become a world-famous speaker and author. She campaigned for people with disabilities, among many other causes. She travelled to 39 countries and was friends with US presidents and famous figures, including Charlie Chaplin, and Mark Twain. (18)_____. Keller died in her sleep in 1968, aged 87.
(Adapted from https://anneappleseed.org)
Question 14:
A. to graduate from college
B. attending a famous college
C. went to college and graduated
D. having finished college
Question 15:
A. if she ignored the communication barrier
B. despite her barriers to communication
C. despite her barriers to communication
D. because of the barriers when she communicated
Question 16:
A. her hearing and vision were lost at the age of nineteen months
B. lost her hearing and sight at nineteen months old
C. who became deaf and blind when she was nineteen months old
D. experiencing the loss of her hearing and vision at nineteen months
Question 17:
A. Ann Sullivan, a 20-year-old teacher, decided to help Helen seek a way to talk to her mother
B. she decided to seek help for Helen and was put in touch with 20-year-old teacher Anne Sullivan
C. Getting help from Anne Sullivan, a 20-year-old teacher, Helen can seek and touch everything
D. Deciding to help Helen, Ann Sullivan became one of Helen’s teachers when she was 20 years old
Question 18:
A. Keller wrote about social issues, leading to twelve books and articles
B. Social issues were a frequent topic in Keller’s books and articles
C. The books and articles that Keller often wrote about social issues were about social issues
D. Keller also wrote twelve books and many articles on social issues
Read the following passage about AI in Healthcare and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 19 to 28.
[I] Artificial Intelligence (AI) is becoming an integral part of healthcare, assisting in areas such as cancer screenings, medical translation, and virtual nursing. [II] Companies developing AI-driven tools claim they enhance efficiency and reduce the workload of medical professionals. [III] However, some experts raise concerns about whether these tools perform as effectively as claimed. [IV]
AI models, particularly large language models (LLMs), are trained using extensive datasets, but their evaluations are often inadequate. A review of AI assessments in healthcare found that only a small fraction involved real patient data. Most studies focused on testing medical knowledge rather than practical applications like prescription writing or patient communication. As a result, these benchmarks fail to accurately measure AI’s effectiveness in real clinical settings. Researchers argue that such limited evaluations create an unrealistic perception of AI’s capabilities, leading to premature deployment in healthcare environments.
Computer scientist Deborah Raji and her colleagues emphasize the need for more realistic and diverse evaluation methods. Current benchmarks are rigid and do not reflect the complexity of real-world medical tasks. Since they primarily assess physician-level knowledge, they overlook the perspectives of nurses and other healthcare workers. Raji suggests developing assessments based on actual clinical workflows and patient interactions, rather than relying on standardized exams that do not represent real-world applications.
To improve AI evaluation, researchers propose strategies such as gathering data from hospitals, analyzing real-world AI usage, and conducting adversarial testing to explore potential weaknesses. Transparency from hospitals and AI vendors regarding their evaluation processes and AI integration would also help create more accurate benchmarks. By focusing on real deployment scenarios, researchers can better assess AI’s strengths and limitations, ultimately ensuring safer and more effective applications in healthcare.
(Adapted from https://www.sciencenews.org)
Question 19: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. health areas
B. AI-driven tools
C. companies
D. professionals
Question 20: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit? “A major issue is that many AI evaluations rely on standardized exams, such as the MCAT, rather than real-world clinical scenarios.”
A. [II]
B. [III]
C. [IV]
D. [I]
Question 21: The word “inadequate” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. inadequate
B. complex
C. restricted
D. sufficient
Question 22: According to paragraph 2, what is one major limitation of AI evaluations in healthcare?
A. They primarily assess theoretical knowledge instead of real-world applications.
B. They rely heavily on real patient data rather than simulated scenarios.
C. They consistently demonstrate AI’s technical errors in clinical settings.
D. They focus too much on patient communication and not enough on medical knowledge.
Question 23: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2? “Researchers argue that such limited evaluations create an unrealistic perception of AI’s capabilities, leading to premature deployment in healthcare environments.”
A. Early adoption of AI in healthcare may result in exaggerated claims about its effectiveness.
B. Researchers believe AI lacks the capability to replace human decision-making in healthcare.
C. AI has already been widely accepted and applied in healthcare since the early age without concerns.
D. Limited evaluations may cause overestimation of AI, leading to its early use in healthcare.
Question 24: The word “overlook” in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.
A. recognize
B. highlight
C. ignore
D. examine
Question 25: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Deborah Raji and her team claim that the current evaluation methods in medicine are effective and diverse but need minor adjustments to include more healthcare professionals.
B. Deborah Raji and her team argue that medical assessments should be based on real clinical workflows rather than rigid benchmarks that focus only on physician-level knowledge.
C. Deborah Raji and her team explain that the primary issue with current benchmarks is their difficulty level, which prevents most healthcare workers from performing well.
D. Deborah Raji and her team concur that standardized exams are the best way to evaluate medical knowledge, but they should be expanded to include nurses and other healthcare workers.
Question 26: Why do researchers emphasize transparency from hospitals and AI vendors?
A. To establish more reliable standards for evaluating AI
B. To minimize the financial burden of AI implementation in hospitals
C. To make further testing of AI in healthcare services unnecessary
D. To speed up the adoption of AI across healthcare facilities
Question 27: Which of the following is inferred about the writer’s attitude towards using AI tools in healthcare?
A. The writer is completely opposed to AI in healthcare, believing that it poses significant risks to patients’ lives due to its lack of credibility.
B. The writer is doubtful about AI tools, so they shouldn’t be fully integrated into medical practice as the medical companies have recommended.
C. The writer sees AI as a budget replacement for human healthcare workers and supports its rapid implementation.
D. The writer is optimistic about AI’s potential but stresses the need for more rigorous evaluation before widespread adoption.
Question 28: Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. AI is revolutionizing healthcare, and although existing evaluation methods are limited for ensuring its safety and effectiveness, there is nothing that scientists can do to improve it.
B. AI models in healthcare that have been claimed to be effective by their mother companies are mainly tested on physician-level knowledge, making them ineffective for assisting medical professionals.
C. AI has significantly improved healthcare, but concerns still remain about its potential biases, leading to new suggestions with a view to replacing it.
D. Although AI is increasingly used in healthcare, current evaluation methods are limited, leading researchers to call for more realistic assessments based on real-world clinical applications.
Read the following passage about the Tiger Mother approach, and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 34.
Is there a right way to bring up children? Some parents use guides to find an answer, many just follow their instinct. Whatever they do, a doubt always remains: could I have done a better job?
A recent contribution to the subject is Amy Chua’s controversial book Battle Hymn of the Tiger Mother, which describes her approach to child-rearing of an ambitious, Chinese parent living in the West. According to Chua, western mothers are far too soft on their children. She says they are always praising their children for every effort they make, even if the result is coming last in a race or playing a piano piece badly. These are the kind of parents who will give in to their children’s demands to go out and play rather than to do their homework. If they protest loudly.
The tiger mother method is very different and the key is total control. Tiger mothers will accept nothing less than ‘A’ grades in every subject – failure to achieve these is just proof that they have not worked hard enough. They will encourage not with praise and reward, but by punishing and shaming. Chua told her own daughter that she would take her doll’s house to a charity shop if she failed to master a difficult piano piece. She even rejected a homemade birthday card from her daughter Sophia because she had drawn it in a hurry.
But Chua highlights another difference, says Chua, which is strictness and honesty. Tiger mother will not hesitate to tell their children that they are lazy, whereas western parents are always telling their children not to worry, that they will do better next time, even if they think they have been lazy. The constant nagging of the tiger mother, the banning of TV and computer games seems harsh, but perhaps it works. Chua’s children have not rebelled, and they don’t resent their strict upbringing. They regularly get top grades at school and are proficient at violin and piano-stereotypical symbols of success, critics would say. By contrast, children with more freedom and more laid-back parents will often lack self-discipline and will fail to push themselves to achieve more.
Question 23: The word “approach” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _____.
A. perspective
B. contribution
C. manner
D. program
Question 24: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. children
B. western mothers
C. demands
D. Chinese parents
Question 25: The word “shaming” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. commending
B. joking
C. joking
D. ignoring
Question 26: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4? “The constant nagging of the tiger mother, the banning of TV and computer games seems harsh, but perhaps it works.”
A. Although tiger mothers seem very strict, their approach might be effective.
B. Tiger mothers do not allow TV or computer games, which makes children hate them.
C. Tiger mothers are too strict, and their method does not work at all.
D. Children who do not watch TV or play games are more intelligent.
Question 27: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of tiger mothers?
A. They accept nothing less than top grades.
B. They will help their children get rewards and high marks.
C. They use punishment and shaming to motivate their children.
D. They are direct and honest with their children.
Question 28: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Tiger mothers demand high academic achievement from their children.
B. Chinese parents will not allow their children to go out if they want.
C. Tiger mothers will not be ready to tell their children that they are lazy.
D. Children with more freedom and more laid-back parents will lead to success.
Question 29: In which paragraph does the writer emphasize the value of being straightforward in the tiger mother’s approach?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 30: In which paragraph does the writer mention how Amy Chua applied strict parenting rules to her own children?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 31: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Western mothers are generally stricter than tiger mothers.
B. Tiger mothers believe that praising effort is crucial for success.
C. Children of laid-back parents are always more disciplined.
D. True meat allergies are very rare.
Question 32: The tiger mother’s approach to punishment and shaming is described in which paragraph?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 33: The passage suggests that stomach problems after eating meat again are most likely due to:
A. A genuine meat allergy.
B. The body forgetting how to digest meat.
C. A sudden increase in meat consumption.
D. Something other than losing the ability to digest meat.
Question 34: The main point of the passage about digestion is that:
A. Eating meat after a long break is bad for your stomach.
B. The body easily adapts to changes in diet, including reintroducing meat.
C. Stomach bacteria are the key to digesting meat properly.
D. High-fiber diets are more difficult to digest than meat after a break.
Read the following passage about Urbanization, and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 40.
Urbanization is the process of people moving from rural areas to cities, is a significant aspect of global development. This migration is often motivated by the pursuit of better employment opportunities, education, healthcare, and overall living conditions available in urban areas. However, the relationship between rural and urban areas, known as rural-urban linkages, is equally important.
[I] Rural-urban linkages are the connections and interactions between rural and urban areas. [II] For instance, rural areas supply cities with essential resources like food, water, and raw materials, while urban areas provide rural communities with markets, technology, and services. [III] Effective linkages can give a boost to economic growth, reduce poverty, and improve living standards in both rural and urban areas. [IV]
However, there are challenges to fostering effective rural-urban linkages. In many developing countries, inadequate infrastructure, limited access to technology, and poor policy coordination hinder these connections. Addressing these challenges requires comprehensive strategies that include investments in infrastructure, supportive policies, and inclusive planning. For example, enhancing transportation networks can facilitate better access to markets for rural producers, while improving digital connectivity can bridge information gaps.
In conclusion, understanding and enhancing rural-urban linkages is crucial for inclusive and sustainable development. By promoting stronger connections between rural and urban areas, we can create more resilient, prosperous, and balanced communities, ultimately contributing to overall national development and improved quality of life for all.
(Adapted from https://www.iied.org)
Question 31: Where in paragraph 2 does the following sentence best fit? “These linkages involve the flow of people, goods, services, information, and capital between these regions.”
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 32: The phrase “give a boost to” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _____.
A. keep up
B. lead to
C. give out
D. take up
Question 33: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. strong rural-urban linkages
B. accessible services
C. diversified economies
D. job opportunities
Question 34: The word “comprehensive” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. thorough
B. partial
C. extensive
D. inclusive
Question 35: According to the paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT an effective linkage?
A. the growth of economy
B. the higher living standard
C. the lower rate of poverty
D. the rise of crime
Question 36: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 2?
A. The passage discusses the benefits of rural-urban linkages for economic growth.
B. The passage highlights challenges in rural-urban linkages and suggests solutions like better transport and digital connectivity.
C. The passage argues that urban development should be prioritized over rural areas.
D. The passage states that digital technology alone can solve rural-urban issues.
Question 37: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about rural-urban linkages?
A. They limit economic growth, reduce poverty.
B. They hinder the flow of goods and services between regions.
C. They can reduce poverty and balance living standards.
D. They require improved infrastructure and policy support.
Question 38: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4? “By promoting stronger connections between rural and urban areas, we can create more resilient, prosperous, and balanced communities…”
A. Strengthening healthcare systems can improve access to medical services, while increasing public awareness can prevent the spread of diseases.
B. Developing affordable housing projects can address homelessness, while implementing job training programs can enhance employment opportunities.
C. Investing in public education can raise literacy rates, while improving teacher training can ensure higher-quality instruction.
D. Improving transportation networks can provide rural producers with better access to markets, while boosting digital connectivity can help close information gaps.
Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Rural-urban linkages are only relevant in developing countries.
B. Strong linkages can lead to more resilient and balanced communities.
C. Rural areas do not contribute significantly to urban growth.
D. Urbanization eliminates the need for rural development.
Question 40: Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. While urbanization offers better economic opportunities and living conditions, it also creates challenges such as overcrowding and inequality, making rural-urban linkages a necessary solution for sustainable development.
B. The movement of people from rural to urban areas is inevitable due to better employment and services, but rural areas continue to play a vital role by supplying essential resources to cities.
C. Rural-urban linkages, which involve the exchange of people, goods, services, and information, are crucial for economic growth, poverty reduction, and balanced development, yet they face challenges that require strategic solutions.
D. Although rural areas rely on urban centers for markets, technology, and services, inadequate infrastructure and poor policy coordination hinder the benefits of these interactions.
Mục đích tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 là gì?
Căn cứ theo quy chế hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và các văn bản hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025, mục đích của kỳ thi là:
– Đánh giá kết quả học tập của học sinh sau 12 năm học theo yêu cầu của chương trình giáo dục phổ thông.
– Lấy kết quả thi để xét công nhận tốt nghiệp trung học phổ thông và làm căn cứ tuyển sinh đại học, cao đẳng.
– Góp phần đánh giá chất lượng giáo dục của địa phương và cả nước, làm cơ sở điều chỉnh nội dung, phương pháp dạy học trong nhà trường.
Thí sinh thi Đại học năm 2025 có bắt buộc thi môn Tiếng Anh không?
Theo quy định hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi tốt nghiệp Đại học năm 2025, thí sinh dự thi phải thực hiện như sau:
– Thi 3 môn bắt buộc: Toán, Ngữ văn và Ngoại ngữ.
– Ngoài ra, thí sinh phải chọn một trong hai bài thi tổ hợp: Khoa học Tự nhiên (gồm các môn Vật lí, Hóa học, Sinh học) hoặc Khoa học Xã hội (gồm các môn Lịch sử, Địa lí, Giáo dục công dân – dành cho học sinh học chương trình giáo dục phổ thông).
Trong số các môn thi, Tiếng Anh là một trong ba môn thuộc bài thi Ngoại ngữ bắt buộc, thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh như một môn bắt buộc, không phụ thuộc vào lựa chọn bài thi tổ hợp hay mục đích xét tuyển đại học.
Như vậy, kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 bắt buộc thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh.
