Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – Sở GDĐT Ninh Bình (Lần 2)

Năm thi: 2025
Môn học: Tiếng anh
Trường: Sở GDĐT Ninh Bình
Người ra đề: Sở GDĐT Ninh Bình
Hình thức thi: TN
Loại đề thi: Thi thử
Độ khó: Dễ – khó
Thời gian thi: 50 phút
Số lượng câu hỏi: 40
Đối tượng thi: Học sinh 12
Năm thi: 2025
Môn học: Tiếng anh
Trường: Sở GDĐT Ninh Bình
Người ra đề: Sở GDĐT Ninh Bình
Hình thức thi: TN
Loại đề thi: Thi thử
Độ khó: Dễ – khó
Thời gian thi: 50 phút
Số lượng câu hỏi: 40
Đối tượng thi: Học sinh 12
Làm bài thi

Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – Sở GD&ĐT Ninh Bình (Lần 2) là một trong những đề tiêu biểu thuộc thi thử môn Tiếng Anh THPT QG, nằm trong chương trình Đề thi vào Đại học.. Đây là đề thi được tổ chức trong đợt kiểm tra lần 2 năm 2025 bởi Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo tỉnh Ninh Bình, nhằm giúp học sinh lớp 12 tiếp tục rèn luyện, củng cố kiến thức và nâng cao khả năng làm bài trước kỳ thi tốt nghiệp THPT sắp tới.

Đề thi chuyển cấp lần 2 được thiết kế với cấu trúc chuẩn theo đề minh họa 2025 của Bộ GD&ĐT, gồm đầy đủ các phần: phát âm, trọng âm, ngữ pháp – từ vựng, chức năng giao tiếp, tìm lỗi sai, đọc hiểu, đọc điền và viết lại câu. Nội dung tập trung vào các chủ điểm quan trọng như: câu điều kiện, mệnh đề quan hệ, thì của động từ, đảo ngữ, câu bị động, liên từ – giới từ, collocations và idioms. Đề thi có độ phân hóa tốt, giúp học sinh đánh giá được trình độ hiện tại và điều chỉnh chiến lược ôn tập phù hợp cho giai đoạn nước rút.

Hãy cùng Dethitracnghiem.vn tìm hiểu về đề thi này và tham gia làm kiểm tra ngay lập tức!

  • Số trang: 4 trang
  • Hình thức: Trắc nghiệm
  • Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

ĐỀ THI

Read the following passage about green energy and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 1 to 10.

As we continue to face the impacts of climate change, having a green environment has become increasingly important to the future of our society. To achieve this, the world is shifting towards green energy, and two particular types of energy at the centre of this movement are solar power and wind power.

(I) Solar power is all about harnessing the energy of the sun by using solar panels to convert sunlight into usable electricity. (II) Moreover, solar panels are perfect for installation on a small scale, such as in private homes, since they require very little maintenance and have a long lifespan. (III) However, the ability to generate solar power depends on the time of day and weather conditions. (IV) This means that solar panels are often less useful if <u>they</u> are installed in places where sunny weather is not typical.

Wind power involves <u>converting the energy</u> of the wind into electricity using large turbines. Wind power doesn’t produce any greenhouse gases, but it is not ideal for private use since turbines require consistent care. However, wind farms can be installed on a large scale and are able to produce electricity continuously regardless of the time of day. This means that if there were more investments in wind power, it could be a <u>viable</u> way to provide energy for major cities and even for whole regions.

Wind and solar power contribute significantly to a green environment by reducing our reliance on fossil fuels, helping us cut down on pollution and slow climate change. Additionally, using renewable energy sources helps promote spending on sustainable development by creating new career opportunities in the green energy sector.

<u>For now, the biggest challenge of adopting green energy is the costs associated with installation and infrastructure, but the benefits unquestionably outweigh the downsides.</u> If we want to stop the climate crisis and create a better and more sustainable future, green energy sources will undoubtedly be the key.

Question 1. Where in paragraph 2 does the following sentence best fit?
This highly efficient form of energy produces zero emissions, so it can significantly reduce our carbon footprint.
A. (IV)
B. (II)
C. (I)
D. (III)

Question 2. The word ‘<u>they</u>’ in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. weather conditions
B. private homes
C. sunny places
D. solar panels

Question 3. The phrase ‘<u>converting the energy</u>’ in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by ______.
A. breaking the energy down
B. turning the energy into
C. giving the energy off
D. saving on the energy

Question 4. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. The cost of wind energy makes it impractical for urban areas.
B. With more investment, wind power can provide reliable, large-scale electricity.
C. Private wind turbines are the best solution for reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
D. Wind power produces greenhouse gases and cannot supply cities on a large scale.

Question 5. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is NOT a benefit of using green energy like wind and solar power?
A. mitigation of climate change
B. increasing pollution levels
C. green job opportunities
D. reduction in fossil fuel consumption

Question 6. The word ‘<u>viable</u>’ in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. effective
B. impractical
C. achievable
D. sustainable

Question 7. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The costs of installing green energy are minimal and not a challenge.
B. Solar power can be generated at any time of day or night.
C. Solar panels are a long-lasting and low-maintenance option for home installations.
D. Wind power is more suitable for private homes than solar power.

Question 8. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 5?
A. The disadvantages of green energy are too great for it to be the key option.
B. Not until green energy becomes completely cost-effective will it replace fossil fuels.
C. Were the costs of green energy lower, its adoption would be much easier.
D. Despite high costs, green energy remains the best long-term alternative.

Question 9. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The shift to renewable energy is essential for achieving long-term sustainability.
B. Fossil fuels remain the most practical solution for energy production.
C. The financial burden of green energy outweighs its environmental benefits.
D. Solar energy is a more cost-effective alternative to fossil fuels in all cases.

Question 10. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Solar and wind power are the only viable solutions to the global energy crisis, as they completely eliminate pollution and greenhouse gases.
B. While renewable energy helps combat climate change, its effectiveness is limited by weather conditions, maintenance costs, and large-scale implementation challenges.
C. Despite its environmental benefits, green energy is too expensive and unreliable to be a practical solution for large scale energy needs.
D. Green energy, particularly solar and wind power, is key to reducing pollution and combating climate change, though cost and infrastructure remain challenges.


Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 11 to 16.

CAN YOU HELP SAVE OUR PLANET?
The Harm of Burning Waste
Burning rubbish and organic waste in open fires severely damages the environment, (11) ______ nearly a third of global black carbon emissions. The soot traps sunlight, releasing heat and contributing to global warming. Ban open waste burning!

The Dangers of Solid Fuels at Home
Many people still burn coal and wood for heating and cooking, but this releases black carbon and (12) ______ harmful pollutants. The tiny particles of indoor carbon (13) ______ from indoor stoves can enter the human body and cause serious health problems. Research shows that household air (14) ______ kills millions of people every year.

Renewable Energy: A Clean Future
Renewable energy is clean and free of black carbon and greenhouse gases, so it does not pollute the environment. It can replace fossil fuels (15) ______ its convenience and reliability. Fossil fuels are depleting rapidly while renewable energy will never (16) ______. Power the planet with renewable energy!

Question 11.
A. controlling
B. measuring
C. generating
D. stabilizing

Question 12.
A. others
B. other
C. few
D. another

Question 13.
A. heated
B. absorbed
C. released
D. reduced

Question 14.
A. component
B. current
C. substance
D. pollution

Question 15.
A. on account of
B. in spite of
C. regardless of
D. instead of

Question 16.
A. run out
B. put out
C. light up
D. burn down


Read the following advertisements and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 17 to 22.

LANGUAGE EXCHANGE PROGRAM
Join the international Language Exchange Program and practice a new language with native speakers from across the globe! This program is excellent (17) ______ linguists who aim to enhance their language proficiency through authentic conversations. With both online and in-person meetings, it’s an ideal (18) ______ to develop skills and forge new friendships. Participants will be matched with native speakers (19) ______ by our experienced team to ensure compatibility in language learning. Whether you wish (20) ______ Spanish, French, Japanese, or another language, we have a partner for you. All sessions are available at flexible hours, allowing you to easily incorporate them into your schedule.
Expand your global network and (21) ______ confidence in speaking a foreign language. Register now and get ready to embark on an (22) ______ language journey with us!

Question 17.
A. at
B. for
C. with
D. on

Question 18.
A. language learning environment
B. environment language learning
C. environment learning language
D. language environment learning

Question 19.
A. are chosen
B. who chosen
C. choosing
D. chosen

Question 20.
A. to practicing
B. to practice
C. practicing
D. practice

Question 21.
A. do
B. make
C. get
D. gain

Question 22.
A. exciting
B. excite
C. excitement
D. excitingly


Read the following passage about remote work and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.

Working from home has become increasingly common, providing employees with greater flexibility and control over their work environments. Without the need for long commutes, people have more time for family, personal interests, or simply to rest. A personalized workspace at home can also lead to higher productivity, as individuals can <u>adjust</u> their surroundings to suit their needs. Many companies now support remote work, recognizing its benefits for both employee well-being and business outcomes.

However, working from home does bring certain challenges. For example, while remote work can boost productivity, some people find it hard to stay focused without the structure of an office setting. There’s also a risk of isolation, as virtual meetings don’t always fully replace face-to-face interactions. However, companies are increasingly devising creative strategies to <u>mitigate</u> these drawbacks, using sophisticated collaboration tools and arranging virtual social activities to preserve a sense of team cohesion.

<u>Another difficulty with working from home is the blurred line between work and personal life.</u> With workspaces merged into the home environment, the temptation to check emails or tackle tasks outside of regular hours can lead to an “always-on” mentality. Setting clear schedules and defining specific working hours is essential to ensure a healthy balance.

Looking forward, remote work is likely to remain a popular choice, supported by ever-advancing technology. Many companies are considering hybrid models, allowing employees to split <u>their</u> time between home and office. This flexible approach can balance the productivity of remote work with the social and collaborative benefits of in-person interactions. As remote work continues to evolve, it will reshape traditional work culture, requiring adaptation from both businesses and employees.

Question 23. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT an advantage of working from home?
A. higher productivity
B. greater flexibility
C. higher income
D. more time

Question 24. The word <u>mitigate</u> in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. notice
B. fix
C. extend
D. overcome

Question 25. The word <u>their</u> in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. hybrid models
B. companies
C. benefits
D. employees

Question 26. The word <u>adjust</u> in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. leave
B. divide
C. adapt
D. destroy

Question 27. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. Working from home allows for a better balance between work and personal life.
B. One challenge of remote work is the difficulty separating professional tasks from personal time.
C. The main issue with remote work is the inability to complete tasks efficiently.
D. A major drawback of working remotely is the lack of communication with colleagues.

Question 28. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Working from home does not require any schedule management.
B. Companies are eliminating remote work due to its negative impact.
C. Technology is helping companies overcome remote work challenges.
D. Virtual meetings completely replace the need for in-person interactions.

Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer mention the benefit of remote work for both employees and businesses?
A. Paragraph 3
B. Paragraph 4
C. Paragraph 1
D. Paragraph 2

Question 30. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the challenge of balancing work and personal life while working from home?
A. Paragraph 4
B. Paragraph 1
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 2


Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Question 31.
A. have led to negative outcomes for many professionals
B. could harm their reputation later in life
C. which the consequences might affect their opportunities
D. that can make them look like bad people

Question 32.
A. The reduction in time spent studying, seeing friends, or doing extracurricular activities is a growing concern
B. Researchers have studied the effects of social media on studying, seeing friend, or doing extracurricular activities
C. To improve their lifestyle, teens should focus more on studying, seeing friends, or doing extracurricular activities
D. Too much time on social media means less time studying, seeing friends, or doing extracurricular activities

Question 33.
A. that mainly involves malware and viruses
B. of which the concern is malware and viruses
C. is malware and viruses
D. being identified as malware and viruses

Question 34.
A. Using antivirus software and avoiding bad websites, their computers can be protected
B. Teens must be so careful that they never avoid clicking on suspicious links or downloading unsafe files
C. Teens should have good antivirus software, and never click on strange links or take files from strangers
D. Without antivirus software, teens may be able to protect their computers from malware and viruses

Question 35.
A. these habits allow teens to ensure their safety on social media
B. teens can develop healthier online habits and use social media safely
C. the use of social media in a safe manner by teens is encouraged
D. safe social media usage is becoming so important to teens


Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 36 to 40.

Question 36.
a. Mark: I agree. The Cycling-to-school programme proposed by Class 12C is going to impress the judges.
b. Nam: It’s hard to predict who’ll win. Other classes also have very interesting projects.
c. Mark: Tomorrow, we’ll get the results of the Green Classroom Competition. Do you think we will win?
A. b-c-a
B. c-a-b
C. a-c-b
D. c-b-a

Question 37.
a. Mai: Try listening to English podcasts or audiobooks daily. Start with slow speech and gradually move to natural speed.
b. Lan: Thanks! I’ll check those out!
c. Lan: How can I improve my English listening skills?
d. Lan: Any good websites for listening practice?
e. Mai: BBC Learning English, TED Talks, and ESL Lab are great for improving listening skills.
A. c-a-e-d-b
B. a-c-d-e-b
C. c-a-d-e-b
D. b-a-c-d-e

Question 38.
a. Last week, my brother said that he had posted some photos on his blog.
b. I said that he had relied too much on information from social media, and that he shouldn’t spend time reading them.
c. My mum says that my brother needs support from me and I shouldn’t complain about his dependence on social media.
d. Then he told me that some of his friends had left negative comments on the photos, and he would not forget them.
e. What do you think? Write back soon.
A. c-a-d-b-e
B. d-b-a-c-e
C. a-d-b-c-e
D. b-e-a-d-c

Question 39.
a. The quick and easy nature of platforms like TikTok and Instagram often leads to decreased attention spans.
b. In conclusion, it is essential to be aware of its potential harms and to practice moderation.
c. This type of media can also contribute to feelings of anxiety and inadequacy.
d. In recent years, the rise of short-form content has become a significant trend.
e. Furthermore, the addictive nature of short-form content can lead to excessive screen time.
A. d-c-a-e-b
B. d-a-e-c-b
C. a-c-d-e-b
D. c-a-e-d-b

Question 40.
a. As well as that, it is important to include any special foods that babies or elderly people may need.
b. Choose food that can be stored for a long time and eaten without cooking.
c. On top of that, be sure to store food that you like, and include a few special treats.
d. With extreme weather occurring often, you may want to be ready for them.
e. In general, the first thing is to stock up on emergency supplies for at least three days.
A. d-b-a-c-e
B. d-c-b-e-a
C. d-a-e-b-c
D. d-e-b-c-a


HẾT

Mục đích tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 là gì?

Căn cứ theo quy chế hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và các văn bản hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025, mục đích của kỳ thi là:

– Đánh giá kết quả học tập của học sinh sau 12 năm học theo yêu cầu của chương trình giáo dục phổ thông.

– Lấy kết quả thi để xét công nhận tốt nghiệp trung học phổ thông và làm căn cứ tuyển sinh đại học, cao đẳng.

– Góp phần đánh giá chất lượng giáo dục của địa phương và cả nước, làm cơ sở điều chỉnh nội dung, phương pháp dạy học trong nhà trường.

Thí sinh thi Đại học năm 2025 có bắt buộc thi môn Tiếng Anh không?

Theo quy định hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi tốt nghiệp Đại học năm 2025, thí sinh dự thi phải thực hiện như sau:

– Thi 3 môn bắt buộc: Toán, Ngữ văn và Ngoại ngữ.

– Ngoài ra, thí sinh phải chọn một trong hai bài thi tổ hợp: Khoa học Tự nhiên (gồm các môn Vật lí, Hóa học, Sinh học) hoặc Khoa học Xã hội (gồm các môn Lịch sử, Địa lí, Giáo dục công dân – dành cho học sinh học chương trình giáo dục phổ thông).

Trong số các môn thi, Tiếng Anh là một trong ba môn thuộc bài thi Ngoại ngữ bắt buộc, thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh như một môn bắt buộc, không phụ thuộc vào lựa chọn bài thi tổ hợp hay mục đích xét tuyển đại học.

Như vậy, kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 bắt buộc thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh.

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