Đề thi thử Tiếng anh THPT 2026 – Sở GDĐT Hà Nội

Đề thi thử Tiếng anh THPT 2026 – Sở GDĐT Hà Nội là tài liệu luyện đề phù hợp với học sinh lớp 12 đang cần đánh giá lại năng lực ở giai đoạn nước rút của năm học 2025–2026. Khác với cách ôn tập theo từng chuyên đề rời rạc, việc làm một đề hoàn chỉnh giúp người học nhìn rõ mức độ thành thạo ở các phần quan trọng như phát âm, trọng âm, từ vựng theo ngữ cảnh, ngữ pháp, giao tiếp và đọc hiểu. Với những em đang tìm đề ôn tốt nghiệp THPT môn Tiếng Anh, đây là nguồn tham khảo hữu ích để kiểm tra phản xạ làm bài, phát hiện dạng câu hỏi dễ mất điểm và điều chỉnh kế hoạch ôn tập theo kết quả thực tế. Bên cạnh giá trị rà soát kiến thức, đề còn tạo cơ hội rèn tốc độ xử lý thông tin và khả năng suy luận ngôn ngữ, nên cũng phù hợp với học sinh muốn tiếp cận dạng đề thi đại học có tính phân hóa rõ hơn.

Tại dethitracnghiem.vn, học sinh có thể luyện với đề ôn thi chuyển cấp theo hình thức trực tuyến để việc tự học trở nên linh hoạt và thuận tiện hơn trong năm 2026. Thay vì chỉ làm xong rồi đối chiếu thủ công, người học có thể xem đáp án ngay sau khi nộp, làm lại nhiều lượt và theo dõi kết quả qua từng lần luyện để biết chính xác mình đang yếu ở kỹ năng nào. Riêng với môn Tiếng Anh, cách học này đặc biệt hiệu quả vì lỗi sai thường phân tán ở nhiều nhóm như từ vựng, cấu trúc câu, giao tiếp và đọc hiểu, nên việc theo dõi từng lượt làm bài sẽ giúp ôn tập đúng trọng tâm hơn. Nhờ đó, học sinh lớp 12 có thể tiết kiệm thời gian, duy trì nhịp luyện đề đều và nâng cao hiệu quả chuẩn bị trước kỳ thi quan trọng sắp tới.

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KỲ KIỂM TRA KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH LỚP 12 CẤP THPT

NĂM HỌC 2025-2026

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

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Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C and D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.

Huong Pagoda Festival 2026

The Huong Pagoda Festival 2026 officially commenced in Hanoi, attracting thousands of pilgrims and tourists from across the country. As one of (1) ______ largest spiritual events in northern Viet Nam, the festival continues to draw widespread attention.

The Huong Pagoda complex includes more than twenty pagodas and temples (2) ______ along the scenic Yen Stream, forming a unique religious landscape that blends culture and nature.

To enhance service standards, the district council upgraded transport routes and parking areas. They then introduced (3) ______ initiatives, including digital ticketing systems and clearer visitor guidance.

Local authorities have (4) ______ security arrangements to ensure a safe and orderly festive season. Therefore, (5) ______ visitor is required to follow safety regulations for a smooth and respectful experience.

The festival is well-known for its religious rituals and vibrant cultural programs designed to highlight traditional music and community activities.

Over the years, the event has contributed significantly to promoting Hanoi as a (6) ______ in Vietnam.

Question 1.

A. the

B. a

C. Ø

D. an

Question 2.

A. which locates

B. locating

C. which is located

D. located

Question 3.

A. the others

B. others

C. other

D. another

Question 4.

A. stepped up

B. turned up

C. ended up

D. used up

Question 5.

A. each

B. many

C. much

D. some

Question 6.

A. tourism leading destination

B. leading destination tourism

C. destination leading tourism

D. leading tourism destination

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Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.

EAT THAT FROG!

Imagine this scenario: You’ve taken up a new job or started a new course, (7) ______ you’re already feeling overworked. You’ve got so many things to do. In his book Eat That Frog!, Brian Tracy explains how simple habits can help you reach your full potential and avoid burnout. Below are four key strategies for improving productivity:

• Tackle your most difficult task first. Your “frog” represents the task you are most likely to (8) ______ until later. Completing it early gives you a strong sense of achievement and builds motivation for the rest of the day.

• Write down clear goals. Identify what you want to achieve in the next twelve months and focus on the objective that will have the greatest positive impact on your life. (9) ______ immediate action is essential for long-term success.

• Plan your day carefully. Setting aside (10) ______ time for careful planning can also make a difference. Creating a to-do list allows you to organise tasks efficiently. Research suggests that systematic organisation can cause a noticeable increase in productivity, particularly when working towards a deadline.

• Develop consistent habits. Observing successful people can improve your career prospects. When positive behaviours become second (11) ______, they require less effort and produce better long-term results. Ultimately, consistent effort enhances long-term sustainability and personal (12) ______.

Question 7.

A. or

B. as

C. so

D. but

Question 8.

A. reject

B. postpone

C. abandon

D. cancel

Question 9.

A. Making

B. Getting

C. Taking

D. Doing

Question 10.

A. a little

B. little

C. few

D. a few

Question 11.

A. instinct

B. habit

C. routine

D. nature

Question 12.

A. effect

B. effectively

C. effectiveness

D. effective

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a cohesive and coherent exchange or text in each of the following questions.

Question 13.

a. Mike: Not bad, thanks. I’m just glad it’s over! How about you? How’d your presentation go?

b. Lucy: Sure thing! Come over around 10:00, after breakfast.

c. Lucy: Hey! How did your Pragmatics exam go?

d. Mike: No problem. So… do you feel like studying tomorrow for our English exam?

e. Lucy: Oh, it went really well. Thanks for helping me with it!

A. e – d – b – c – a

B. c – a – e – d – b

C. c – d – e – a – b

D. e – a – c – d – b

Question 14.

a. The upward trend continued and in 2020, more than half of its population lived in urban areas. In the next twenty years, the urban population is expected to reach 65 per cent of the total population.

b. The line graph shows population trends in Fantasia’s urban and rural areas over the 1950-2040 period.

c. By contrast, the urban population grew throughout the same period. In 1950, the percentage of urban population was just around 6 per cent. It increased slightly to 15 per cent in 1980.

d. Overall, the urban population has increased and will continue to grow while the rural population has decreased and will continue to fall.

e. In 1950, 94 per cent or most of Fantasia’s population lived in rural areas; this figure remained stable until 1960 before falling to 48 per cent in 2020 and is expected to drop to 35 per cent in 2040.

A. b – c – d – a – e

B. b – a – d – c – e

C. b – e – d – a – c

D. b – d – e – c – a

Question 15.

Dear Customer Service Team,

a. After bringing it home and installing it correctly, I found that it did not work properly.

b. Please advise me on how to return the faulty item. I look forward to your prompt response.

c. Whenever the power is on, the drum does not spin, and the machine makes a strange noise.

d. I am writing to complain about a washing machine I purchased from your store on 22 February 2026.

e. As this is a brand-new product and still under warranty, I would like to request a replacement or a full refund.

Yours faithfully,

Laura Brown

A. e – d – b – c – a

B. c – a – d – b – e

C. a – e – d – c – b

D. d – a – c – e – b

Question 16.

a. Katy: Honestly, I’m not sure if I’ll go. I don’t know Sam that well.

b. Jane: Hi, Katy. Are you going to Sam’s party at the weekend?

c. Jane: Don’t worry. He’s very friendly, so I think you two will get along.

A. c – a – b

B. b – a – c

C. b – c – a

D. a – b – c

Question 17.

a. Firstly, it helps people distinguish between reliable sources and misleading or false content.

b. As a result, individuals are better equipped to make informed decisions and avoid being manipulated by misinformation.

c. Media literacy also encourages audiences to recognize bias, persuasive techniques, and hidden agendas in advertisements and news reports.

d. On a larger scale, integrating media literacy education into school curricula is crucial for developing responsible and critical thinkers.

e. Media literacy is an essential skill in the modern world because it enables individuals to critically evaluate the vast amount of information they encounter every day.

A. e – c – a – d – b

B. c – a – b – d – e

C. e – a – c – b – d

D. c – b – a – e – d

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

MEMORIZATION TECHNIQUES

Throughout history, scholars have recognised that memory plays a central role in cognitive development. It is therefore essential to understand which techniques can help us memorize more efficiently. One of the most effective ways (18) ______. Below are two simple techniques to help you remember everything, even a shopping list of eight items.

The first method involves creating a vivid and unusual story. For example, picture a giant loaf of bread with coffee suddenly spraying out like a fountain. The coffee turns into white yoghurt, (19) ______. Olives run across the bridge while large eggs chase them. The olives hide behind a carton of orange juice. When you try to eat one, it becomes a bitter-tasting onion. (20) ______.

The second technique is called the “memory palace”. Visualize your home and mentally walk through each room. Place the items from your list in specific locations, such as bread on the doormat or coffee in front of the TV. (21) ______, you make the information easier to recall. Not only is this strategy useful for shopping lists (22) ______.

Question 18.

A. may be use imagination

B. is to avoid using imagination

C. is to use imagination

D. are imagining effectively

Question 19.

A. flowing into a river that passed under a bridge made from steak

B. into which flows a river passing through a bridge made from steak

C. which flows into a river passing under a bridge made of steak

D. the river then flows and passes through a bridge made of steak

Question 20.

A. Such usual mental sequences immediately quell your curiosity

B. These strange and colourful images help fix the items in your mind

C. In this way, the stories appear more entertaining and engaging

D. These strange and colourful images may confuse your memory

Question 21.

A. By forming personal and clear associations

B. If the information is defined several times

C. When you create vivid yet impersonal images

D. Despite the use of detailed mental pictures

Question 22.

A. although it is also helpful when some people give speeches without cues

B. but it benefits all people who deliver speeches using prompts as well

C. but also some people are beneficial from giving a speech without notes

D. but it is also beneficial for some people to deliver speeches without notes

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

Although our brain accounts for just 2 percent of our body weight, the organ consumes half of our daily carbohydrate requirements — and glucose is its most important fuel. Under acute stress, the brain requires some 12 percent more energy, prompting many to gravitate towards sugary snacks.

Carbohydrates provide the body with the quickest source of energy. In fact, in cognitive tests subjects who were stressed performed poorly prior to eating. Their performance, however, went back to normal after consuming carbohydrates.

The regulation of hunger involves several brain regions that control metabolism and feeding behaviour. One key structure acts as a kind of gatekeeper. When this region registers that the brain lacks glucose, it limits signals from the rest of the body. As a result, people often turn to carbohydrates as soon as the brain signals a need for energy, even if the body still has sufficient reserves.

To explore the relationship between stress and eating behaviour, researchers conducted an experiment with 40 participants. In one session, the participants delivered a ten-minute speech in front of strangers. In another session, they did not have to speak. After each session, scientists measured levels of the stress hormones cortisol and adrenaline and then provided a food buffet. When the participants gave a speech before the buffet, they were more stressed, and on average consumed an additional 34 grams of carbohydrates, than when they did not give a speech.

In everyday life, cravings for sweet foods may also have a physiological explanation. When the brain lacks energy, it may increase the production of stress hormones, which over time can raise the risk of heart disease, stroke, or depression. Studies also suggest that people who experienced high levels of stress in childhood may develop stronger preferences for sweets later in life.

For some people, especially those under long-term stress, cravings for sweets may not be a lack of self-control. Instead, they may reflect the brain’s need for energy. Reducing stress may be the key to healthier eating habits.

Question 23. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for sugary food cravings?

A. The brain relies heavily on glucose as its primary fuel.

B. The body may completely exhaust its internal energy reserves.

C. The brain requires additional energy during periods of stress.

D. Carbohydrates serve as a rapid source of energy for the body.

Question 24. The phrase gravitate towards in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.

A. abstain from

B. derive from

C. incline to

D. predispose to

Question 25. The word registers in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by ______.

A. suppresses

B. perceives

C. monitors

D. applies

Question 26. The word they in paragraph 6 refers to ______.

A. sweets

B. people

C. cravings

D. habits

Question 27. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 5?

A. A sustained increase in stress hormones may arise when the brain lacks energy, eventually raising the risk of heart disease or depression.

B. Insufficient food intake may prompt the brain to increase stress hormone production, thereby raising long-term risks of cardiovascular and mental health disorders.

C. When people do not consume sufficient food, the body gradually struggles to regulate stress hormones, which may contribute to chronic illness.

D. Skipping meals can unintentionally trigger serious conditions such as stroke or heart disease because the brain does not receive enough energy.

Question 28. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. When the brain senses a shortage of glucose, it may ignore signals from the rest of the body.

B. People experiencing stress usually lose their appetite because their brains require more energy.

C. Eating sugary foods is the most effective way to reduce stress hormones in the body.

D. The hypothalamus is the only part of the brain that is responsible for controlling hunger.

Question 29. Which paragraph suggests that cravings for sweet foods may not indicate an individual’s deficiency?

A. Paragraph 5

B. Paragraph 6

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 4

Question 30. Which paragraph provides experimental evidence that eating carbohydrates can improve task performance?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 1

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 4

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

In their article “Just Plane Wrong: Celebs with the Worst Private Jet CO2 Emissions,” YARD ranked Taylor Swift as the celebrity with the largest carbon footprint, attributing 138 tons of emissions to her private jet. Jay-Z and Floyd Mayweather followed closely behind. Swift’s recent attendance at Kansas City Chiefs games to support her partner, Travis Kelce, has intensified media scrutiny. Celebrities receiving public criticism for air travel is hardly a new phenomenon. Singling out one individual risks oversimplifying a broader issue that predates any particular headline. [I]

Carbon emissions are, to some extent, unavoidable for high-profile public figures who travel frequently. In “Rich Enough to Offset,” Laura Kiesel explores the ever-increasing carbon emissions of celebrities including Arnold Schwarzenegger and Leonardo DiCaprio, and how they have tried to account for them. One popular approach is carbon offsetting, a practice that allows individuals to compensate for emissions by funding environmental initiatives, including reforestation or renewable energy projects. [II] While such efforts may signal accountability, critics argue that they rarely neutralize emissions in any meaningful sense.

Professor Jon Erickson of the University of Vermont highlights concerns about the unintended consequences of certain offset projects, particularly in developing regions. Some initiatives, such as small-scale solar schemes established to counterbalance luxury emissions, may inadvertently limit resources available for essential services like healthcare and education. Furthermore, these efforts do little to address the root causes of excess carbon emissions. Erickson therefore calls for stronger legislative measures, including mandated caps on emissions that would directly address the source of the problem without displacing its impacts. [III]

Celebrity air travel remains under constant scrutiny, regardless of public sentiment. Although voluntary offset programmes may help restore celebrities’ reputations, they can also legitimise continued overconsumption. In “Don’t Bet on Offsets,” A.C. Thompson and Duane Moles question whether such mechanisms can realistically counteract emissions. Companies such as TerraPass offer affluent consumers the opportunity to calculate and compensate for their carbon footprints, yet these transactions often occur in loosely regulated markets lacking consistent standards. [IV]

While carbon offsetting provides limited mitigation opportunities, meaningful progress depends on systemic reforms that reduce overall emissions and confront the underlying causes of climate impact.

Question 31. The author mentions Taylor Swift in paragraph 1 primarily to ______.

A. demonstrate that celebrities are unfairly targeted by environmental critics

B. argue that public figures are the main contributors to climate change

C. illustrate how individual cases can obscure a broader structural issue

D. suggest that media attention exaggerates environmental concerns

Question 32. The phrase such efforts in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. high-profile individuals

B. environmental initiatives

C. renewable energy projects

D. carbon emissions

Question 33. According to paragraph 2, how do some celebrities attempt to manage their environmental impact?

A. By investing exclusively in large-scale renewable infrastructure

B. By reducing the frequency of their international travel schedules

C. By financially supporting environmental projects to offset emissions

D. By complying with mandatory government carbon regulations

Question 34. According to paragraph 3, some offset initiatives may be problematic because they ______.

A. eliminate local employment opportunities in developing regions

B. unintentionally limit essential services in lower-income communities

C. increase the operational costs of small-scale solar installations

D. reduce investment in global renewable energy schemes and markets

Question 35. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?

A. These initiatives make minimal progress in tackling the underlying issue of excessive carbon emissions.

B. These efforts tend to focus on reducing visible emissions rather than their overall generated volume.

C. These programmes shift responsibility for tackling carbon emissions to alternative environmental sectors.

D. These initiatives are likely to eliminate the primary factors responsible for high carbon emissions.

Question 36. Which of the following is TRUE according to paragraph 4?

A. TerraPass has eliminated doubts about carbon neutrality claims.

B. Offset programmes guarantee measurable reductions in emissions.

C. Carbon offset markets operate under strict international regulation.

D. Some offset transactions occur in poorly regulated environments.

Question 37. The word legitimise in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to:

A. conceal

B. justify

C. restrict

D. calculate

Question 38. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Carbon offsetting may alleviate certain environmental pressures but does not fundamentally transform emission-producing behaviour.

B. Carbon offsetting provides a comprehensive remedy capable of permanently eliminating luxury-related carbon emissions.

C. Carbon offsetting functions primarily as a public relations strategy without individuals’ sense of accountability towards the environment.

D. Carbon offsetting guarantees measurable climate benefits through market-based investment in renewable initiatives.

Question 39. Where in the passage does the following sentence best fit?

“This environment creates space for exaggerated claims of carbon neutrality without verifiable outcomes.”

A. [III]

B. [I]

C. [IV]

D. [II]

Question 40. Which of the following best summarises the passage?

A. Carbon offset markets provide a practical mechanism for reducing the environmental impact of luxury air travel among high-profile individuals in response to growing criticism.

B. Although media scrutiny of celebrity jet use has intensified, public criticism tends to focus disproportionately on affluent individuals rather than the broader patterns of carbon consumption.

C. Growing public concern about luxury air travel has prompted calls for stricter government regulation of private aviation and improved oversight of carbon offset markets.

D. Although celebrities adopt carbon offsetting to address emissions from private air travel, critics argue that these measures are inadequate and effective climate action requires systemic reform.

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