Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – Bộ GD&ĐT

Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – Bộ GD&ĐT là một trong những đề tiêu biểu thuộc Tổng hợp đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh THPT QG, nằm trong chương trình Đề thi vào Đại học. Đây là đề thi được Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo công bố nhằm định hướng ôn tập cho học sinh lớp 12 trên toàn quốc, chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi Tốt nghiệp THPT Quốc gia năm 2025.

Đề thi được xây dựng với cấu trúc chuẩn và nội dung bám sát chương trình THPT, bao gồm các phần: ngữ âm (phát âm – trọng âm), ngữ pháp – từ vựng, giao tiếp theo ngữ cảnh, tìm lỗi sai, viết lại câu, và đọc hiểu. Với hệ thống câu hỏi được thiết kế có tính phân hóa cao, đề thi giúp học sinh không chỉ củng cố kiến thức mà còn rèn luyện tư duy, chiến lược làm bài hiệu quả và khả năng làm bài dưới áp lực thời gian.

Hãy cùng Dethitracnghiem.vn khám phá ngay đề thi thử chính thức từ Bộ GD&ĐT và bắt đầu luyện tập để sẵn sàng bứt phá trong kỳ thi Tốt nghiệp THPT năm 2025!

• Số trang: 4 trang
• Hình thức: Trắc nghiệm
• Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2025 BỘ GD&ĐT

Tuyệt vời! Dưới đây là nội dung đề thi tiếng Anh đã được chép lại, định dạng chuẩn hóa và bôi đậm đáp án dựa trên phân tích ngữ nghĩa và ngữ pháp. Tôi đã loại bỏ các ghi chú thừa và sửa các lỗi chính tả/ngữ pháp rõ ràng. Xin lưu ý rằng có một số câu hỏi (đặc biệt là Q14, Q15 và Q28) có cấu trúc hoặc nội dung dường như không hoàn chỉnh hoặc mâu thuẫn trong ảnh gốc, tôi đã chọn đáp án dựa trên phân tích tốt nhất có thể trong bối cảnh đó, và dựa trên các nguồn tham khảo khác nếu có thể, nhưng sự không chắc chắn vẫn tồn tại đối với những câu hỏi này.

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.

MAKING FRIENDS IN THE SKY

“Who will I sit next to? Will they be interesting or will they be really (1) ___?” Are these the questions that you often ask yourself before a (2) ___? But that’s all going to change. An airline company has introduced a new system (3) ___ ‘Meet Your Seat’. Now you can choose your ‘next-door neighbour’. When you book your tickets, you can show your social media profile (4) ___ everyone else’s profile. Then you can choose who you want to sit next to. If you want to talk about work, post (5) ___ business contacts, look at people’s professional network profiles. And if you prefer (6) ___ fun and chat about travelling, look at their social network profiles!

Question 1:
A. boring
B. bored
C. boringly
D. boredom

Question 2:
A. long journey plane
B. long plane journey
C. plane long journey
D. journey long plane

Question 3:
A. which called
B. calling
C. was called
D. called

Question 4:
A. for
B. in
C. see
D. also

Question 5:
A. do
B. make
C. talk
D. about

Question 6:
A. to having
B. having
C. have
D. to have

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.

To Save the Planet, Begin at Home!
Let’s look at what we can do at home each day to save the planet.

Facts and figures:
Farming with synthetic chemicals has killed insects and (7) ___ animals. Meanwhile, we (8) ___ 80 million cans each day and 45,000 tonnes of plastic packaging each year. These kill up to one million seabirds a year.

Positive action!

Buy and consume fresh, organic food and drinks, especially things produced locally. This reduces the need for long-distance food (9) ___.

Don’t always buy food that comes in cans or plastic packaging. (10) ___ buying a pre-packaged sandwich, make your own! That helps reduce the (11) ___ of rubbish you produce.

Reuse packaging where possible. Separate paper, plastic, and metal (12) ___ and recycle them.

Question 7:
A. others
B. other
C. the others
D. another

Question 8:
A. store away
B. give in
C. pass out
D. put off

Question 9:
A. storage
B. transport
C. observation
D. generation

Question 10:
A. Instead of
B. On account of
C. Irrespective of
D. In view of

Question 11:
A. quantity
B. level
C. amount
D. resource

Question 12:
A. factors
B. analysis
C. substances
D. utterances

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the text arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.

Question 13.
Nam: Hi, Mark! Long time no see. You look so good!
Mark: Hi, Nam! Yes, I exercise every morning and eat more healthy food.
Nam: (13)
Mark: Thanks. You look so fit, too. Have you worked out a lot lately?
a. Have you worked out a lot lately?
b. You look so fit, too.
c. Thanks.
A. c-a-b
B. c-c-b-a
C. c-b-a
D. a-c-b

Question 14.
Sue: Why online classes?
Alex: (14)
Sue: They improve our communication skills, and they have flexible schedules.
a. I’m going to try online classes.
b. How are you going to improve your English?
c. I think online classes are too expensive; I don’t think I’ll try them.
d. They improve our communication skills, and they have flexible schedules.
A. d-c-b-a
B. a-b-c-d
C. c-b-d-a
D. a-c-d-b

Question 15.
Gemma: Hi Billy.
Billy: Hi Gemma, But it was interesting to watch these videos.
Gemma: (15)
Billy: Thanks also for the guitar lesson videos you sent me last week. You know, we ought to practise together for some time. What do you think?
Gemma: Thanks also for the tip about the free websites with musical lesson videos – they are much better than the sites I’ve been following.
Billy: It’s really nice to plan how to play a new instrument like the guitar, but I am too busy at the moment, so I’m focusing on my violin lessons for now.
a. Thanks also for the guitar lesson videos you sent me last week.
b. You know, we ought to practise together for some time.
c. What do you think?
d. It’s really nice to plan how to play a new instrument like the guitar, but I am too busy at the moment, so I’m focusing on my violin lessons for now.
e. But it was interesting to watch these videos.
A. d-b-c-e-a
B. d-c-a-b-e
C. d-a-c-b-e
D. d-c-e-b-a

Question 16.
a. While deadlines and flexibility are essential aspects of this job, the occasional office meeting for project updates, for instance, is a small trade-off.
b. Working remotely from home fuels my creativity and allows for a more productive environment.
c. My passion for both people and technology naturally led me to a fulfilling career in social media management.
d. In conclusion, I am incredibly happy with my current position and the opportunities it provides, as it perfectly combines my interests and skills.
A. d-c-b-a
B. a-b-c-d
C. c-b-a-d
D. c-a-d-b

Question 17.
a. However, despite this growth, Redmond still lacks a hospital, as the nearest one is located over 30 miles away in Longreach.
b. Once abundant parks on Oak Street and Redmond Avenue have been replaced by factories, making it shift towards industrialisation.
c. The industrial shift has also attracted new businesses, from arcades to shops and factories, boosting the local economy and making Redmond more and more commercially active.
d. Redmond has transformed significantly over the past decade.
e. This industrial growth has led to a 25% population boom due to an influx of factory workers, resulting in increased traffic congestion.
A. d-c-b-e-a
B. d-b-c-a-e
C. c-d-e-b-a
D. d-b-c-e-a

Read the following passage about humanoid robots and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.

Humanoid robots, prominent characters in science fiction novels and Sci-Fi films, are becoming a reality. Sophia, as an example, (18) ___. One month later, she had her premiere in Texas, USA, and has made multiple public appearances around the world since then. At one such event, Sophia was granted Saudi Arabian citizenship in October 2017 and even became the first Innovation Champion of the United Nations Development Programme later that year. During Sophia’s trip to Vietnam in 2018, she attended the Industry 4.0 Summit and Expo.
Sophia the Robot is the latest humanoid robot created by a Hong-Kong-based company (19) ___. Undoubtedly, Sophia, together with other humanlike robots represents the rapid advancement in the field of robotics and artificial intelligence (20) ___.
Sophia’s physical appearance is inspired by both the famous actress Audrey Hepburn and the creator’s wife. (21) ___ But what makes her more lifelike than other robots is the patented artificial skin called Frubber®, which has the feel and flexibility of human skin.
Sophia’s ambition is world wide with the ability to communicate naturally. The Sophia Intelligence Collective, which is a combination of A.I. and human input, and other sophisticated perception techniques enable Sophia to recognise human faces and identify human emotions and gestures. Equipped with machine learning algorithms, (22) ___.

Question 18:
A. was first activated on Valentine’s Day, 2016
B. that had her first activation on Valentine’s Day, 2016
C. having been initially activated on Valentine’s Day, 2016
D. whose initial activated on Valentine’s Day, 2016

Question 19:
A. succeeded in bringing robots to life by combining research in AI, engineering, and design
B. of which brought robots to life by combining research in AI, engineering, and design.
C. of joint efforts in AI research, engineering, and design in building robots
D. of which the joint efforts in AI research, engineering, and design in building robots

Question 20:
A. She has been designed to assist humans in healthcare, customer support, and education.
B. Helping people in the fields of healthcare, customer service, and education helped create Sophia.
C. The assistance in customer support, education, and healthcare led to the creation of Sophia.
D. The assistance in customer support, education, and healthcare helped improve Sophia.

Question 21:
A. Without cameras and microphones working as her eyes and ears, she could not see and hear like humans.
B. Her eyes and ears work as cameras and microphones so that people can see and hear like humans.
C. She has cameras for eyes and microphones for ears, allowing her to see and hear like a human
D. Using cameras and microphones for eyes and ears, they allow her to see and hear as humans do

Question 22:
A. Human speech and interaction are becoming easy to Sophia
B. Human speech and interaction are becoming easy for Sophia.
C. The machine can help Sophia speak and interact with humans
D. Interaction in speech between Sophia and humans takes place

Read the following passage about endangered languages and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 23 to 30.

There are around 7,000 languages in the world today. However, most people speak the largest languages: Chinese, Spanish, English, Hindi, Russian, Arabic, and other. According to the UNESCO Atlas of the World’s Languages in Danger, around one-half of the world’s languages now have fewer than 3,000 speakers. We may soon lose those languages completely. In fact, about 230 languages have become extinct between 1950 and 2010.
Unfortunately, when we lose a language, we also lose its culture and knowledge. That’s because people in different places use different ways of living and thinking. One example of this is the Tuvan language of southern Siberia. Tuvan people depend on animals for food and other basic needs. Their language shows this. For example, the word eedz means “a white calf less than one year old.”
In some places, people are working to save endangered languages. Many schools in New Zealand now teach Maori language. This helps connect native New Zealand speakers to their Maori cousins. And Welsh government in the UK has helped connect native Welsh speakers to their Maori cousins. By 2050, experts predict that number to reach as high as two-thirds.
Technology offers a possible alternative to saving endangered languages. National Geographic’s Enduring Voices project has created “Talking Dictionaries”. These are recorded voices of people communicating with each other. All of them are fluent speakers of endangered languages. And because these dictionaries are accessible to anyone on the Internet, people now and in the future can learn some of the vocabulary, greetings, and grammar rules of these languages.

Question 23: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the world’s languages?
A. Arabic
B. Hindi
C. Spanish
D. Maori

Question 24: The word “extinct” in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to?
A. Native
B. Existent
C. Official
D. Ancient

Question 25: The word “Their” in paragraph 2 refers to?
A. basic needs
B. Tuvan people
C. different ways
D. different places

Question 26: The word “accessible” in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by?
A. dependable
B. visible
C. available
D. audible

Question 27: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Endangered languages will only be saved by technology.
B. There is no other way to save endangered languages but technology.
C. Technology could be another way to save endangered languages.
D. Technology should be regarded as the last resort to save endangered languages.

Question 28: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The number of Spanish speakers will increase by one million by 2050.
B. Only by creating ‘Talking Dictionaries’ can endangered languages be saved.
C. Less than 200 languages were no longer in existence between 1950 and 2010.
D. The Welsh government is trying to double the number of Welsh speakers by 2050.

Question 29: In which paragraph does the writer mention a present relationship?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 3
C. Paragraph 2
D. Paragraph 4

Question 30: In which paragraph does the writer explore methods of maintaining endangered languages?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the questions from 31 to 40.
[I] Global urbanization has increased significantly in recent decades, and one of the main drivers of this growth has been rural-urban migration. [II] Half of the world’s population already resides in cities, and by 2050, experts predict that number to reach as high as two-thirds. [III] Many factors contribute to this global phenomenon, which then gives rise to various issues. [IV]
There are many push factors which force people away from rural life. For example, rural residents have fewer employment options because there are not many large companies nearby. What’s more, rural jobs are mainly related to agriculture, so crop failures or natural disasters can make it difficult to earn a good living. By contrast, there are pull factors that attract people to urban life. Urban areas have more industries, so people can easily get good jobs and achieve a higher standard of living. They also offer entertainment alternatives, such as theme parks, sporting and musical events, allowing urban citizens to access leisure activities easily.
In the process of urbanisation, rural migration causes far-reaching impacts on the environment and urban citizens. First, deforestation occurs when city governments have forests cut down to build accommodation for new residents, which harms the environment and reduces air quality. As growth in population brings about more deforestation and pollution, the air quality worsens, which can lead to health issues for residents. Second, due to population expansion, cities are struggling to offer adequate public facilities for urban people. As a result, some low-income people are unable to obtain the necessary affordable housing and end up living in slums, where the quality of life is very poor.
Rural migration is a complicated process, of which the causes and the effects should be fully comprehended. By carefully planning city development and suitable social policies, we can provide urban citizens with good public services, exciting job opportunities and a high quality of life without harming the environment.

Question 31: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
Sentence: “More and more people are moving to the city from the countryside each year.”
A. [II]
B. [III]
C. [I]
D. [IV]

Question 32: The phrase “gives rise to” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by
A. originates from
B. results in
C. brings up
D. carries out

Question 33: The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. Industries
B. Urban areas
C. Good jobs
D. people

Question 34: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a push factor?
A. fewer job opportunities
B. a lower living standard
C. crop failures
D. a lower income

Question 35: Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?
A. Urban areas offer serious health problems and housing shortages as a result of migration to the city.
B. Urban citizens is detrimental to not only the environment but also urbanites’ health and life quality.
C. Low-income urban citizens lack access to public amenities, leading to their poor standards of living.
D. Pull factors are the main reasons that draw people to live in urban areas.

Question 36: The word “far-reaching” in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to?
A. expanded
B. limited
C. negative
D. severe

Question 37: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Both push factors and pull factors contribute to the increase in rural-urban migration on a global scale.
B. Rural migration is the most important driving force behind the phenomenon of urbanisation worldwide.
C. Adequate public utilities are getting easily accessible to city residents thanks to governments’ effort.
D. City residents’ health issues are caused by poor living conditions in the slums, not reduced air quality.

Question 38: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Were rural migration not so complicated, we would know its causes and effects better.
B. Not until a full comprehension of the causes and effects of rural migration is achieved can rural migration be viewed as a straightforward process.
C. It is crucial to gain a comprehensive understanding of the causes and effects of such a complicated phenomenon as rural migration.
D. Despite the complexity, a complete understanding of both its causes and its effects is impossible to achieve.

Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The push factors play a more significant role than the pull factors in encouraging rural migration.
B. Rural migration has more profound impacts on the environment than on city dwellers’ well-being.
C. Without proper planning, urban expansion may come at the expense of the environment and city dwellers’ well-being.
D. By 2050, about 70% of urban population is predicted to be living in slums due to their inability to afford proper housing.

Question 40: Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Driven by limited rural prospects and the attraction of city life, rural migration fuels rapid urbanisation, impacting the environment and urban residents, thus requiring careful planning for sustainable development.
B. Lack of rural opportunities and the attraction of city life cause increased rural migration, significantly expanding urban populations and creating insoluble social and environmental issues.
C. Global urbanisation accelerates as people relocate from rural areas to cities seeking improved employment and living standards, but this migration leads to pressing issues like deforestation and inadequate public services.
D. Limited opportunities in rural areas and the promise of better employment and recreation draw people to cities, but rapid urban growth damages the environment, highlighting the need for careful planning.

Mục đích tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 là gì?

Căn cứ theo quy chế hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và các văn bản hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025, mục đích của kỳ thi là:

– Đánh giá kết quả học tập của học sinh sau 12 năm học theo yêu cầu của chương trình giáo dục phổ thông.

– Lấy kết quả thi để xét công nhận tốt nghiệp trung học phổ thông và làm căn cứ tuyển sinh đại học, cao đẳng.

– Góp phần đánh giá chất lượng giáo dục của địa phương và cả nước, làm cơ sở điều chỉnh nội dung, phương pháp dạy học trong nhà trường.

Thí sinh thi Đại học năm 2025 có bắt buộc thi môn Tiếng Anh không?

Theo quy định hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi tốt nghiệp Đại học năm 2025, thí sinh dự thi phải thực hiện như sau:

– Thi 3 môn bắt buộc: Toán, Ngữ văn và Ngoại ngữ.

– Ngoài ra, thí sinh phải chọn một trong hai bài thi tổ hợp: Khoa học Tự nhiên (gồm các môn Vật lí, Hóa học, Sinh học) hoặc Khoa học Xã hội (gồm các môn Lịch sử, Địa lí, Giáo dục công dân – dành cho học sinh học chương trình giáo dục phổ thông).

Trong số các môn thi, Tiếng Anh là một trong ba môn thuộc bài thi Ngoại ngữ bắt buộc, thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh như một môn bắt buộc, không phụ thuộc vào lựa chọn bài thi tổ hợp hay mục đích xét tuyển đại học.

Như vậy, kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 bắt buộc thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh.