Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – Sở GD Bình Phước lần 1

Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – Sở GD Bình Phước lần 1 là một trong những đề tiêu biểu thuộc Tổng hợp đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh THPT QG, nằm trong chương trình Đề thi vào Đại học Đây là đề thi thử lần 1 do Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo tỉnh Bình Phước tổ chức, với mục tiêu giúp học sinh lớp 12 toàn tỉnh đánh giá năng lực và luyện tập sát với định dạng của kỳ thi Tốt nghiệp THPT Quốc gia năm 2025.

Đề thi được thiết kế theo cấu trúc chuẩn của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo, bao gồm các dạng bài quen thuộc như: phát âm – trọng âm, ngữ pháp – từ vựng, chức năng giao tiếp, tìm lỗi sai, viết lại câu, và đọc hiểu. Các câu hỏi được sắp xếp theo mức độ từ dễ đến khó, phù hợp cho cả học sinh trung bình – khá và những thí sinh đang hướng tới mục tiêu điểm cao để xét tuyển đại học.

Hãy cùng Dethitracnghiem.vn khám phá đề thi thử lần 1 từ Sở GD Bình Phước và luyện tập ngay hôm nay để sẵn sàng bước vào kỳ thi Tốt nghiệp THPT 2025 với sự tự tin và kết quả tốt nhất!

• Số trang: 4 trang
• Hình thức: Trắc nghiệm
• Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2025 SỞ GD BÌNH PHƯỚC LẦN 1

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.

PLAN YOUR NEXT VACATION

Dreaming of a perfect vacation? Look no further! Our travel agency offers (1) _______ vacation packages tailored to your needs. Whether you want to relax on a tropical beach, exploring ancient ruins, or experience a bustling city, we have the perfect trip for you. Our packages (2) _______ “Special Inclusive Offers” include flights, accommodation, and activities, all designed to make sure you have an unforgettable experience. With our (3) _______, you can plan your dream vacation in just a few clicks. Don’t miss (4) _______ begin your planning today. You will receive (5) _______ exclusive deals on top destinations. Vacations have never been easier!
(6) _______ Book now and start (6) _______ the world with us.

Question 1:
A. various wonderful
B. wonderfully
C. wonderful
D. wonder

Question 2:
A. are called
B. calling
C. is called
D. was called

Question 3:
A. easy booking system
B. booking easy system
C. system easy booking
D. easy-booking system

Question 4:
A. get out
B. in
C. at
D. to

Question 5:
A. to exploring
B. explore
C. to explore
D. exploring

Question 6:
A. To exploring
B. exploring
C. To explore
D. explore

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.

IMPROVING FOCUS AND CONCENTRATION

Want to sharpen your focus and be more productive? These strategies can help you stay on track.

Challenges:
It’s estimated that 60% of people struggle with (7) _______ during the day, which affects their ability to concentrate on important tasks.

Proven Techniques:
– Prioritize your tasks! If you have a lengthy (8) _______ of tasks to complete, it can be beneficial to create a to-do list and rank each item by its level of importance.
– Eliminate interruptions! If feasible, try keeping your phone in (9) _______ room in your house or staying offline to minimize interruptions and improve your focus overall.
– Focus on one thing at a time! Rather than multitasking, keep your brain actively (10) _______ one task until it is complete.
– Take regular breaks! (11) _______ working non-stop for hours, allow yourself short breaks to recharge and refresh your mental energy.
– Get enough sleep! A well-rested (12) _______ is better able to focus and handle daily tasks.
(Adapt from https://www.indeed.com/career-advice/career-development/ways-to-improve-focus)

Question 7:
A. sleepiness
B. fight
C. focus
D. distractions

Question 8:
A. many
B. level
C. number
D. amount

Question 9:
A. the other
B. another
C. other
D. others

Question 10:
A. got out
B. engaged in
C. broken up
D. taken away

Question 11:
A. Instead of
B. Instead
C. Got hold of
D. Make use of

Question 12:
A. brainpower
B. wit
C. mind
D. mind

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.

Question 13:
a. Ami: Hi, Mark! Long time no see. You look so good!
b. Mark: Hi, Ami! Thanks. I exercise every morning and eat more healthy food.
c. Ami: Oh I see now. Thanks.
A. a-b-c
B. b-a-c
C. c-b-a
D. a-c-b

Question 14:
a. Alex: Why online classes?
b. Sue: I’m going to try online classes.
c. Alex: How are you going to improve your English?
d. Alex: I think online classes are too expensive; I don’t think I’ll try them.
e. Sue: They improve our communication skills, and they have flexible schedules.
A. a-b-c-d-e
B. c-b-a-d-e
C. d-b-a-e-c
D. d-e-a-b-c

Question 15: Zara: Japan? That’s amazing! What makes you choose it?
a. Oliver: I’ve always wanted to experience the cherry blossom season and visit the temples.
b. Oliver: I’ve been thinking about going to Japan next summer.
c. Oliver: Oh, I can’t wait to try the sushi and ramen there!
d. Zara: It’s a great choice! I went there last year, and the food was incredible too.
A. a-b-c-d
B. b-a-d
C. c-b-a-d
D. d-a-c-b

Question 16:
a. Oliver: Hey, Max! Did you catch that new movie everyone’s talking about?
b. Max: Hi, Oliver! Yes, I saw it last night. It was fantastic!
c. Oliver: I’ve heard great reviews. What did you like most about it?
A. a-b-c
B. b-a-c
C. c-b-a
D. c-a-b

Question 17:
d. Heard you are planning a weekend trip to the beach. That sounds like so much fun!
e. Where are you planning to go, and how long will you be staying?
b. I’ve been thinking of taking a short break myself, so I’d love to join if there’s still room.
a. Let’s brainstorm some ideas.
c. Looking forward to hearing from you and hoping we can arrange something soon!
A. d-e-a-c-b
B. c-d-e-a-b
C. c-d-a-e-b
D. d-e-b-a-c

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.

Humanoid robots, eminent characters in science fiction novels and Sci-fi films, are becoming a reality. Sophia, as an example, (18) _______. One month later, she had her premiere in Texas, USA, and has made multiple public appearances around the world since then. At one such event, Sophia was granted Saudi Arabian citizenship in October 2017, and even became the first Innovation Champion of the United Nations Development Programme later that year. During Sophia’s trip to Vietnam in 2018, she addressed the Industry 4.0 Summit and Expo.
Sophia the Robot is the latest humanoid robot created by a Hong Kong-based company (19) _______. Undoubtedly, Sophia together with other humanlike robots represents the rapid advancement in the field of robotics and artificial intelligence. (20) _______
Sophia’s physical appearance is inspired by both the famous actress Audrey Hepburn and the creator’s wife. (21) _______ But what makes her more lifelike than other robots is the patented artificial skin called Frubber®, which has the feel and flexibility of human skin. (21) _______ with her ability to communicate naturally. Sophia’s AI ability and other sophisticated perception techniques enable Sophia to recognize human faces and identify human emotions and gestures. Equipped with machine learning algorithms, (22) _______.

Question 18:
A. is activated on Valentine’s Day, 2016
B. that had her first Valentine’s activation launched in 2016
C. having been initially activated on Valentine’s Day, 2016
D. whose initial activation was launched on Valentine’s Day, 2016

Question 19:
A. whose combined efforts in AI research, engineering, and design have given birth to robots
B. succeeded in bringing robots to life by combining research in AI, engineering, and design
C. brought robots to life thanks to accomplishments in AI research, engineering, and design
D. of which the joint efforts in AI research, engineering, and design in building robots

Question 20:
A. designed
B. aiding in the field of healthcare, customer service, and education helped create Sophia
C. intended to aid humans in healthcare, customer service, and education, Sophia was developed
D. The assistance in customer support, education, and healthcare led to the creation of Sophia

Question 21:
A. Her communication ability
B. Combined with her AI ability and other sophisticated perception techniques enables Sophia to recognize human faces and identify human emotions and gestures
C. Sophia’s AI ability and other sophisticated perception techniques enabled her to recognize human faces and identify human emotions and gestures
D. Equipped with machine learning algorithms

Question 22:
A. she is able to interact with human
B. she can interact with human
C. interact with humans
D. she is able to interact with humans effortlessly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.

There are around 7,000 languages in the world today. However, most people speak the largest languages: Chinese, Spanish, English, Hindi, Russian, Arabic, and others. So what about the smaller languages? According to the UNESCO Atlas of the World’s Languages in Danger, around one-half of the world’s languages now have fewer than 2,500 speakers. We may soon lose those languages completely. In fact, about 530 languages became extinct between 1950 and 2010.
Unfortunately, when we lose a language, we also lose its culture and knowledge. That’s because people in different places use different ways of living and thinking. One example of this is the Tuvuan language of southern Siberia. Tuvuan people depend on animals for food and other basic needs. Their language shows this close connection between people and animals. The Tuvuan word ezzinggileer, for example, means “to sing with the rhythms of riding a horse.” And the word ok-pazzo is “a white calf less than one year old.”
In some places, people are working to save endangered languages. Many schools in New Zealand now teach the Maori language. This helps connect native New Zealanders to their Maori culture. And Welsh is spoken by around 500,000 people in Wales. The Welsh government is working to increase the number to one million by 2050.
Technology offers a possible alternative to trying to increase endangered languages. National Geographic’s Enduring Voices project has created “Talking Dictionaries”, the recorded voices of people communicating with each other. All of them are fluent speakers of endangered languages. And because these dictionaries are accessible to anyone on the internet, people now and in the future can learn some of the vocabulary, greetings, and grammar rules of these languages.
(Adapted from Explorers and Expeditions)

Question 23: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the languages?
A. Arabic
B. Hindi
C. Spanish
D. Maori

Question 24: The word extinct in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. Arab
B. existent
C. official
D. ancient

Question 25: The word Their in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. basic needs
B. Tuvuan people
C. different ways
D. different places

Question 26: The word accessible in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by _______.
A. available
B. dependable
C. visible
D. audible

Question 27: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4? “Technology offers a possible alternative to trying to increase endangered languages.”
A. Endangered languages can only be saved by technology.
B. There is no other way to save endangered languages but technology.
C. Technology could be another way to save endangered languages.
D. Technology should be regarded as the last resort to save endangered languages.

Question 28: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The number of languages will increase by one million by 2050.
B. Only by creating ‘Talking Dictionaries’ can endangered languages be saved.
C. Less than 200 languages were no longer in existence between 1950 and 2010.
D. The Welsh government is trying to double the number of Welsh speakers by 2050.

Question 29: In which paragraph does the writer mention the present annual relationship?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4

Question 30: In which paragraph does the writer explore methods of maintaining endangered languages?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.

[I] Global urbanization has increased significantly in recent decades, and one of the main drivers of this growth has been rural migration. [II] Half of the world’s population already resides in cities, and by 2050, experts predict that number to reach as high as two-thirds. [III] Many factors contribute to this global phenomenon, which then (31) _______ to various issues [IV].
As rural areas have limited job opportunities, lower wages, inadequate services (education, healthcare), people are pushed out of rural areas. In contrast, urban areas offer better jobs, higher salaries, improved services (education, healthcare, basic services), entertainment (cultural events, parks, sporting and musical events), and overall a higher standard of living. These are factors that attract people to urban areas. They often also offer entertainment alternatives, such as theme parks, sporting and musical events, allowing urban citizens to access leisure activities easily.
In the process of urbanization, rural migration causes various (36) _______ impacts on the environment and urban citizens. First, deforestation occurs when city governments have forests cut down to build accommodation for new residents, which harms the environment and reduces air quality. As growth in population bring about more deforestation and pollution, the air quality worsens, which can lead to health issues for residents. Second, due to population expansion, cities are struggling to offer adequate public facilities for urban people. As a result, some low-income people are unable to afford affordable housing and end up living in slums, where the quality of life is very poor.
Rural migration is a complicated process, of which the causes and the effects should be fully comprehended. By carefully planning city development and suitable social policies, we can provide urban citizens with good public services, exciting job opportunities and a high quality of life without harming the environment.
(Adapted from Bright)

Question 31: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit? “More and more people are moving to the city from the countryside each year.”
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]

Question 32: The phrase gives rise to in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by _______.
A. originates from
B. results in
C. brings up
D. carries out

Question 33: The word They in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. rural areas
B. good jobs
C. urban areas
D. people

Question 34: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a push factor?
A. limited job opportunities
B. a higher living standard
C. crop failures
D. a low income

Question 35: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Urbanization improves the living standards of all inhabitants to the detriment of the environment.
B. Urban citizens suffer serious health problems and housing shortages as a result of migration to the city.
C. Rural migration is detrimental to not only the environment but also urbanites’ health and life quality.
D. Low-income urban citizens lack access to public amenities, leading to their poor standards of living.

Question 36: The word far-reaching in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. expanded
B. limited
C. negative
D. severe

Question 37: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Both push factors and pull factors contribute to the increase in rural migration on a global scale.
B. Rural migration is the most important driving force behind the phenomenon of urbanization worldwide.
C. Adequate public utilities are easily accessible to city residents thanks to governments’ effort.
D. City residents’ health issues are caused by poor living conditions in the slums, not reduced air quality.

Question 38: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4? “Despite the complexity of rural migration, a comprehensive understanding of its causes and effects could be achieved.”
A. Were the process of rural migration more straightforward, a thorough understanding of its causes and effects could be gained.
B. Not until a full comprehension of the causes and effects of rural migration is achieved does it become a straightforward process.
C. It is crucial to gain a comprehensive understanding of the causes and effects of such a complicated phenomenon as rural migration.
D. Due to the complexity of rural migration, understanding its causes and effects is impossible.

Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The push factors play a more significant role than the pull factors in encouraging rural migration.
B. Rural migration has more profound impacts on the environment than on city dwellers’ well-being.
C. Without proper planning, urban expansion may come at the expense of the environment and city dwellers’ well-being.
D. By 2050, about 70% of urban population is predicted to be living in slums due to their inability to afford proper housing.

Question 40: Which best summarizes the passage?
A. Driven by limited rural prospects… leads to urbanisation, impacting the environment and urban residents, thus requiring careful planning for sustainable development.
B. Lack of rural opportunities and the attraction of city life cause increased rural migration, significantly expanding urban populations and creating insoluble social and environmental issues.
C. Global urbanization accelerates as people relocate from rural areas… leading to pressuring existing infrastructure and inadequate public services.
D. Limited opportunities in rural areas and the promise of better employment and recreation draw people to cities, but rapid urban growth damages the environment, highlighting the need for careful planning.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.

[I] Climate change is one of the most pressing challenges of our time, affecting ecosystems, biodiversity, and human communities across the globe. [II] Scientists warn that unless greenhouse gas emissions are significantly reduced, the Earth’s climate may experience irreversible damage. [III] The consequences of climate change are widespread, impacting weather patterns, agricultural productivity, and health conditions worldwide. [IV]

One of the primary causes of climate change is the burning of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and gas, which releases large amounts of carbon dioxide (CO2) into the atmosphere. This gas traps heat, leading to a rise in global temperatures, a phenomenon known as global warming. Another major contributor is deforestation, as trees play a critical role in absorbing CO2. When forests are destroyed, that CO2 is released, adding to the atmosphere’s greenhouse effect.
The impacts of climate change are already evident in various forms: Rising sea levels are causing coastal erosion and increasing the frequency of flooding, which endangers millions living in low-lying areas. Additionally, extreme weather events like hurricanes, droughts, and heatwaves are becoming more common and severe. These events not only damage infrastructure but also pose serious risks to human health and food security.
Addressing climate change requires a collaborative global response. Many governments have joined international agreements, like the Paris Agreement, aiming to limit global temperature rise and reduce emissions. However, it is crucial for individuals and businesses to also play a part by reducing their carbon footprint through actions such as conserving energy, reducing waste, and supporting renewable energy sources.
(Adapted from Climate and Human Impact)

Question 31: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit? “Rapid industrial development and population growth have accelerated the accumulation of greenhouse gases.”
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]

Question 32: The phrase traps heat in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _______.
A. blocks sunlight
B. reduces temperature
C. lets out warmth
D. absorbs energy

Question 33: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a cause of climate change?
A. rising sea levels
B. increased CO2 levels
C. deforestation
D. burning fossil fuels

Question 34: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Climate change is creating both environmental and human health challenges.
B. Climate change leads to more frequent weather disasters and harmful diseases.
C. The rising sea levels threaten coastlines and biodiversity.
D. Global warming affects agriculture, health, and living conditions.

Question 35: The word evident in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. inapparent
B. essential
C. noticeable
D. unforgettable

Question 36: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Climate change impacts are limited to environmental issues.
B. Only governments can effectively reduce climate change effects.
C. Extreme weather events are becoming more frequent due to climate change.
D. Industrialization has gradually decreased greenhouse gas emissions.

Question 37: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4? “Addressing climate change requires a collaborative global response.”
A. All people should participate in international climate agreements.
B. Every country must independently work on climate change solutions.
C. An effective solution to climate change must involve collective efforts.
D. Limiting global warming requires individuals to take immediate action.

Question 38: The word their in paragraph 4 refers to ______?.
A. fossil fuels
B. deforestation
C. individuals and businesses
D. greenhouse gases

Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Without significant reductions in emissions, climate change consequences could become irreversible.
B. Fossil fuel is often considered the sole reason for the current global warming trend.
C. Deforestation and industrial activities may be more impactful than fossil fuels in causing climate change.
D. Climate change impacts are mostly related to the natural environment and wild animals, with minimal effects on human communities and health.

Question 40: Which best summarizes the passage?
A. Increased greenhouse gases, driven by industrial growth, is causing significant environmental challenges.
B. Fossil fuels and deforestation are key causes of climate change, which governments can only address through international agreements.
C. Climate change, a global challenge caused by emissions and deforestation, leads to widespread impacts and requires collaborative action.
D. The Paris Agreement aims to limit global warming by encouraging businesses to switch to renewable energy sources.

Mục đích tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 là gì?

Căn cứ theo quy chế hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và các văn bản hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025, mục đích của kỳ thi là:

– Đánh giá kết quả học tập của học sinh sau 12 năm học theo yêu cầu của chương trình giáo dục phổ thông.

– Lấy kết quả thi để xét công nhận tốt nghiệp trung học phổ thông và làm căn cứ tuyển sinh đại học, cao đẳng.

– Góp phần đánh giá chất lượng giáo dục của địa phương và cả nước, làm cơ sở điều chỉnh nội dung, phương pháp dạy học trong nhà trường.

Thí sinh thi Đại học năm 2025 có bắt buộc thi môn Tiếng Anh không?

Theo quy định hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi tốt nghiệp Đại học năm 2025, thí sinh dự thi phải thực hiện như sau:

– Thi 3 môn bắt buộc: Toán, Ngữ văn và Ngoại ngữ.

– Ngoài ra, thí sinh phải chọn một trong hai bài thi tổ hợp: Khoa học Tự nhiên (gồm các môn Vật lí, Hóa học, Sinh học) hoặc Khoa học Xã hội (gồm các môn Lịch sử, Địa lí, Giáo dục công dân – dành cho học sinh học chương trình giáo dục phổ thông).

Trong số các môn thi, Tiếng Anh là một trong ba môn thuộc bài thi Ngoại ngữ bắt buộc, thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh như một môn bắt buộc, không phụ thuộc vào lựa chọn bài thi tổ hợp hay mục đích xét tuyển đại học.

Như vậy, kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 bắt buộc thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh.