Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – Sở GD&ĐT Tuyên Quang – Mã đề chẵn

Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – Sở GD&ĐT Tuyên Quang – Mã đề chẵn là một trong những đề tiêu biểu thuộc Tổng hợp đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh THPT QG, nằm trong chương trình Đề thi vào Đại học. Đây là đề thi thử do Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo tỉnh Tuyên Quang tổ chức, với phiên bản mã đề chẵn, nhằm giúp học sinh lớp 12 rèn luyện toàn diện kiến thức và kỹ năng trước kỳ thi Tốt nghiệp THPT Quốc gia năm 2025.

Đề thi được xây dựng sát theo cấu trúc đề minh họa mới nhất của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo, bao gồm đầy đủ các phần: ngữ âm (phát âm – trọng âm), ngữ pháp – từ vựng, chức năng giao tiếp, tìm lỗi sai, viết lại câu, và đọc hiểu. Hệ thống câu hỏi trong đề được phân hóa theo mức độ nhận biết, thông hiểu, vận dụng và vận dụng cao, giúp học sinh củng cố kiến thức cơ bản, phát triển tư duy ngôn ngữ và kỹ năng làm bài hiệu quả trong thời gian giới hạn.

Hãy cùng Dethitracnghiem.vn luyện tập với đề thi thử mã đề chẵn của Sở GD&ĐT Tuyên Quang và sẵn sàng chinh phục kỳ thi Tốt nghiệp THPT năm 2025 một cách tự tin và xuất sắc!

• Số trang: 4 trang
• Hình thức: Trắc nghiệm
• Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2025 SỞ GD&ĐT TUYÊN QUANG (MÃ ĐỀ CHẴN)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

DISCOVERING NEW FRIENDS IN CLASS
“Who will be my partner? Will they be supportive or will they be (1)______ supportive?” Are these questions that cross your mind before starting a (2)? Well, that’s going to change! A new app (3) “Classmates Connect” has been created. Now, you can choose your study partner before the semester begins. When you register for your classes, you can upload your profile (4)______ everyone in the class to see. You’ll also get to view your classmates’ profiles. This way, you can select someone to work with who shares your interests. If you want to (5)______ strong study habits and do group projects, check out their academic profiles. And if you would like (6)______ discussions rather than hobbies, look at their social media details!

Question 1.
A. really
B. reality
C. realistic
D. real

Question 2.
A. session study new
B. study session new
C. study new session
D. new study session

Question 3.
A. was named
B. naming
C. named
D. which name

Question 4.
A. by
B. out
C. to
D. for

Question 5.
A. do
B. make
C. build
D. put

Question 6.
A. sharing
B. to sharing
C. share
D. to share

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions.
Question 7.
a. John: That sounds amazing! Italy is such a beautiful country to visit.
b. Mary: Yes, I’m going to Italy next month, and I can’t wait to explore the countryside.
c. John: Have you booked your holiday for this summer yet?
A. c-b-a
B. c-a-b
C. b-c-a
D. a-c-b

Question 8.
a. Peter: Me too. There are too many things to think about.
b. Mary: I want to go to university, but it’s really hard to choose one.
c. Peter: That’s a really good idea.
d. Peter: Mary, do you know what you’re doing after graduation yet?
e. Mary: Maybe we should make a list of what we think is most important and just focus on that.
A. c-e-d-b-a
B. c-b-a-e-d
C. d-b-a-e-c
D. d-e-a-b-c

Question 9.
Dear Billy,
a. However, if you could let us know which area you are most interested in and why, we can make sure we won’t disappoint you.
b. Thank you for your email.
c. This will make life easier for our cook.
d. It would also be helpful to know if there is any food you don’t eat.
e. It sounds like you would be perfect for the course. We offer lessons in all types of art.
Looking forward to your reply.
Best wishes,
Hillary Mason
A. b-e-a-d-c
B. a-d-b-e-c
C. c-a-d-b-e
D. d-b-a-c-e

Question 10.
a. He taught himself to read and write, and later became a successful author.
b. Born into poverty, Charles Dickens faced numerous challenges in his early life.
c. Despite the odds, he worked tirelessly to pursue his passion for storytelling.
d. His life story inspires many people to persevere and chase their dreams.
e. Today, he is regarded as one of the most influential writers of his time.
A. b-a-c-e-d
B. b-c-a-e-d
C. a-b-c-d-e
D. b-c-a-d-e

Question 11.
a. Despite these issues, the allure of exploring new places and experiencing different cultures continues to attract millions of travelers each year.
b. This surge in tourism has also encouraged local businesses, from restaurants to souvenir shops, to flourish, thereby boosting the local economy.
c. However, with increased foot traffic comes challenges, such as overcrowding and strain on infrastructure.
d. Tourism has become a vital part of many economies around the world, offering countless opportunities for growth and development.
e. In recent years, popular destinations have seen a significant increase in visitors, leading to a vibrant atmosphere filled with cultural exchanges.
A. d-c-a-b-e
B. d-e-b-c-a
C. d-b-c-a-e
D. d-a-e-b-c

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks

Mother Teresa, one of the most admired figures of the 20th century, (12)______ for her unwavering dedication to the poor and suffering. Born in Skopje, North Macedonia, in 1910, she felt a calling to serve humanity at a very young age. At the age of 18, she joined the Sisters of Loreto and began her journey as a missionary. She moved to Calcutta, India, in 1929, where she witnessed unimaginable poverty and suffering, which inspired her to establish the Missionaries of Charity in 1950.
The Missionaries of Charity, (13), became known worldwide for their humanitarian efforts. This organization, which started with just a handful of members, expanded to over 4,500 sisters working in more than 130 countries. Their work focused on caring for “the poorest of the poor,” including the homeless, abandoned children, and those suffering from illnesses such as leprosy and HIV/AIDS.
Throughout her life, Mother Teresa was recognized not only for her charity but also for her deep compassion and humility. Her work reminded the world (14). Her efforts earned her numerous accolades, including the Nobel Peace Prize in 1979. However, she remained humble, often saying that her work was simply a way of carrying out God’s will.
Her legacy (15), stimulating countless people across the globe. The Missionaries of Charity, founded by her in 1950, continue to operate today, serving millions of people in need. Despite facing criticism at times, Mother Teresa’s commitment to alleviating suffering remains an enduring symbol of selflessness and love. (16). Mother Teresa proved that one individual could make a profound difference. She showed the world that even in the face of adversity, kindness and determination have the power to transform lives.

Question 12.
A. was globally respected for her steadfast compassion
B. being recognized as one of the most charitable figures
C. became largely unknown for her lifelong devotion to humanitarian work
D. has been celebrated worldwide for her dedication to helping others

Question 13.
A. where hope and love were the cornerstones of its mission
B. which was a global symbol of kindness and care
C. whose goal was to serve the poorest of the poor
D. that was led by Mother Teresa until her passing

Question 14.
A. her acts of kindness may be largely forgotten over future generation
B. which highlighted her lifelong mission of serving humanity
C. reminding humanity of the importance of selflessness
D. that charity and love can transform even the bleakest situations

Question 15.
A. has continued to inspire generations to make a difference
B. which is why her efforts are still celebrated globally
C. inspiring people to dedicate their lives to service
D. that her vision continues to shape humanitarian efforts worldwide

Question 16.
A. Proving through her actions, Mother Teresa showed how one person could transform lives
B. Having dedicated her life to service, her impact is remembered today
C. Founded on her principles, her legacy continues to grow
D. Shown by her dedication, she left an indelible mark on humanity

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.
Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extremely concerned about the changes to our climate which are taking place. Admittedly, climate changes have occurred on our planet before. For example, there have been several ice ages or glacial periods.
These climatic changes, however, were a far cry from the modern ones in that they occurred gradually and, as far as we know, naturally. The changes currently being monitored are said to be the result not of natural causes, but of human activity. Furthermore, the rate of change is becoming alarmingly rapid.
The major problem is that the planet appears to be warming up, which is causing widespread concern. According to some experts, this warming process, known as global warming, is occurring at a rate unprecedented in the last 10,000 years. The implications for the planet are very serious. Rising global temperatures could give rise to such ecological disasters as extremely high increases in the incidence of floods, droughts and storms. These in turn could have a harmful effect on agriculture.
It is thought that this unusual warming of the Earth has been caused by so-called greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, being emitted into the atmosphere by car engines and modem industrial processes, for example. Such gases not only add to the pollution of the atmosphere, but they also create a greenhouse effect, by which the heat of the sun is trapped. This leads to the warming up of the planet.
(I) Politicians are also concerned about climate change. (II) These summits are attended by representatives from around 180 of the world’s industrialized countries. (III) Of these summits, the most important took place in Kyoto in Japan in 1997. (IV) There it was agreed that the most industrialized countries would try to reduce the volume of greenhouse gas emissions and were given targets for this reduction of emissions.
It was also suggested that more forests should be planted to create so-called sinks to absorb greenhouse gases. At least part of the problem of rapid climate change has been caused by too drastic deforestation. Sadly, the targets are not being met. Even more sadly, global warnings about climate changes are often still being regarded as scaremongering.
(Adapted from Read and Understand 2)

Question 17. Where in paragraph 5 does the following sentence best fit?
Hence, there are new regular summits on the subject, where environmental issues have been taken into consideration.
A. (III)
B. (IV)
C. (II)
D. (I)

Question 18. The phrase “a far cry” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______
A. different
B. positive
C. feasible
D. essential

Question 19. The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ______
A. engines
B. effects
C. gases
D. processes

Question 20. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is NOT an effect of the rise in global temperature?
A. storms
B. droughts
C. floods
D. glaciers

Question 21. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 6?
A. Deforestation has been caused by the demand for agricultural land.
B. Greenhouse gases are supposed to cause the rapid climate change and deforestation.
C. The problem of rapid climate change should be discussed at international conferences.
D. Planting more forests can contribute to fighting against climate change.

Question 22. The word “drastic” in paragraph 6 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______
A. obvious
B. ingenious
C. severe
D. modest

Question 23. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Agriculture could be indirectly affected by the global temperature rises.
B. The most important summits on industrialization took place in Kyoto in 1997.
C. No scientists are concerned about the changes in our climate.
D. Ice ages or glacial periods are not related to climate change.

Question 24. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
“The major problem is that the planet appears to be warming up, which is causing widespread concern.”
A. The main issue is that the planet seems to be getting warmer, leading to widespread concern.
B. The major problem is that the planet’s temperature remains stable and unchanged.
C. The warming of the planet is seldom a significant concern for most people in the world.
D. The planet is cooling down, which is causing serious concern for all people in the world.

Question 25. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Only developed countries are responsible for global warming
B. Countries with the warmest climate are not responsible for global warming
C. Developing countries are mainly responsible for global warming
D. The most industrialized countries are mainly responsible for global warming.

Question 26. Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. The rapid change in climate, which can result in many severe social impacts, is caused by human activities and in need of great concern from experts and scientists all over the world.
B. Global warming is occurring at an unprecedented rate, leading to serious ecological consequences like increased flooding, droughts, and storms, which could harm agriculture.
C. Despite global warnings, countries are failing to meet their climate change targets, and these warnings are often dismissed by most of the international organizations.
D. Experts are increasingly concerned about rapid climate change caused by human activities, which causes severe ecological consequences and requires global cooperation to address.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

Young children spend a lot of time using screens: watching television, playing on touchscreen apps, or face timing with grandparents. In fact, research on global screen time guidelines has found that around 75% of children aged up to two years use some form of digital media daily, and 64% of children aged two to five years use it for more than an hour a day.
Digital media is part of children’s lives and is set to stay that way. This means it is crucial to understand how to use this technology so children can benefit from it, and how to maximise its educational potential. A keyway to do this is for parents and other adults to use digital media together with children. This is known as co-use, and can range from parents actively discussing the media content with their children to simply watching a show together.
Our recent research with colleagues has investigated how adults using digital media with children aged up to six affects children’s ability to learn from digital media. We carried out a meta-analysis: a wide-ranging examination of existing research studies to identify trends and themes. We found that, overall, parent-child co-use is helpful for supporting young children’s learning from digital media. Adults using digital media together with children can help them understand and relate to the digital content better. Our research chimes with other studies which suggest that, for instance, parents using digital media with children can boost engaged language skills.
Our findings suggest that by being actively engaged, adults can help their children make the most of the educational benefits of digital media. This could involve one-to-one interactions directing their child’s attention to the educational content and relating it to real-world situations.
(Adapted from https://www.mayoclinichealthsystem.org/)

Question 27. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the aims of using screens?
A. finding information
B. face timing with grandparents
C. watching television
D. playing on touchscreen apps

Question 28. The word “crucial” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. important
B. trivial
C. necessary
D. essential

Question 29. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. television
B. digital media
C. screen time
D. touchscreen app

Question 30. The word “engaged” in paragraph 4 could be replaced by ______.
A. active
B. attentive
C. involved
D. uninterested

Question 31. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
“Adults using digital media together with children can help them understand and relate to the digital content better.”
A. By participating in digital media activities together, adults can get better understanding and relating to what they see online
B. Collaborating with children on digital media allows adults to grasp and relate to the material more effectively.
C. Adults who use digital media alongside children can reduce their ability to comprehend and engage with the content.
D. When adults share digital media experiences with children, it can improve the children’s comprehension and connection to the material.

Question 32. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Co-use of digital media by adults and children enhances children’s learning.
B. Screen time should be completely eliminated for children under five years old.
C. Most children aged up to two years do not use digital media daily.
D. Children learn better from digital media when they use it without adults.

Question 33. In which paragraph does the writer mention an example of using screen?
A. Paragraph 4
B. Paragraph 3
C. Paragraph 2
D. Paragraph 1

Question 34. In which paragraph does the writer explain the advantage of parent and children collaboration?
A. Paragraph 4
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 1

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, Cor D on your answer sheet to indicate the best option that best fits each of the numbered blanks

MAKE A DIFFERENCE – VOLUNTEER WITH US!
Your time and kindness can change lives.
Why Volunteer?
Volunteering opens doors to new experiences, helping you connect with (35)______ while making a real impact. You’ll meet people from different backgrounds and learn from diverse perspectives. It’s a meaningful way to (36)______ to people who are in need, making a positive difference for yourself and those around you.
Ways to Contribute:

Community Clean-Up
Be part of our (37)______ to restore beauty to local parks and streets. Together, we create a cleaner, more welcoming space that everyone can enjoy and feel proud of.
*Elderly Care Visits
Spend time with seniors in care facilities, sharing stories and listening to theirs. (38)______ these small acts of companionship, their days become brighter and more joyful. Your presence can (39)______ their spirits and bring them comfort when they need it most.

Mentorship for Youth
Step into a rewarding role as a mentor, helping students navigate their studies and set meaningful goals. Encourage them to build confidence and grow the skills they need to thrive. Your (40)______ can be the spark that motivates a young mind to aim higher and achieve more.

Question 35.
A. the others
B. other
C. another
D. others

Question 36.
A. turn out
B. reach out
C. keep out
D. make out

Question 37.
A. assignment
B. excuse
C. reason
D. mission

Question 38.
A. Except for
B. Regardless of
C. Owing to
D. Instead of

Question 39.
A. imitate
B. evaluate
C. regulate
D. elevate

Question 40.
A. guidance
B. dependence
C. application
D. permission

Mục đích tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 là gì?

Căn cứ theo quy chế hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và các văn bản hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025, mục đích của kỳ thi là:

– Đánh giá kết quả học tập của học sinh sau 12 năm học theo yêu cầu của chương trình giáo dục phổ thông.

– Lấy kết quả thi để xét công nhận tốt nghiệp trung học phổ thông và làm căn cứ tuyển sinh đại học, cao đẳng.

– Góp phần đánh giá chất lượng giáo dục của địa phương và cả nước, làm cơ sở điều chỉnh nội dung, phương pháp dạy học trong nhà trường.

Thí sinh thi Đại học năm 2025 có bắt buộc thi môn Tiếng Anh không?

Theo quy định hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi tốt nghiệp Đại học năm 2025, thí sinh dự thi phải thực hiện như sau:

– Thi 3 môn bắt buộc: Toán, Ngữ văn và Ngoại ngữ.

– Ngoài ra, thí sinh phải chọn một trong hai bài thi tổ hợp: Khoa học Tự nhiên (gồm các môn Vật lí, Hóa học, Sinh học) hoặc Khoa học Xã hội (gồm các môn Lịch sử, Địa lí, Giáo dục công dân – dành cho học sinh học chương trình giáo dục phổ thông).

Trong số các môn thi, Tiếng Anh là một trong ba môn thuộc bài thi Ngoại ngữ bắt buộc, thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh như một môn bắt buộc, không phụ thuộc vào lựa chọn bài thi tổ hợp hay mục đích xét tuyển đại học.

Như vậy, kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 bắt buộc thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh.