Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – Cụm các trường Phía Nam Hưng Yên

Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – Cụm các trường Phía Nam Hưng Yên là một trong những đề tiêu biểu thuộc Tổng hợp đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh THPT QG, nằm trong chương trình Đề thi vào Đại học. Đây là đề thi thử được tổ chức bởi cụm các trường THPT khu vực phía Nam tỉnh Hưng Yên, nhằm giúp học sinh lớp 12 ôn luyện sát thực tế và chuẩn bị kỹ lưỡng cho kỳ thi Tốt nghiệp THPT Quốc gia năm 2025.

Đề thi được biên soạn theo cấu trúc đề minh họa mới nhất của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo, bao gồm đầy đủ các phần: ngữ âm (phát âm – trọng âm), ngữ pháp – từ vựng, chức năng giao tiếp, tìm lỗi sai, viết lại câu, và đọc hiểu. Với hệ thống câu hỏi có độ phân hóa rõ ràng, đề thi giúp học sinh củng cố kiến thức nền tảng, rèn luyện kỹ năng phân tích, phản xạ nhanh và làm bài hiệu quả trong thời gian quy định.

Hãy cùng Dethitracnghiem.vn khám phá đề thi thử của cụm các trường phía Nam Hưng Yên và luyện tập ngay hôm nay để sẵn sàng bước vào kỳ thi Tốt nghiệp THPT 2025 với sự tự tin cao nhất!

• Số trang: 4 trang
• Hình thức: Trắc nghiệm
• Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2025 CÁC CỤM TRƯỜNG PHÍA NAM HƯNG YÊN

Section 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 1: I don’t have a smartphone. I can’t keep up with my classmates on the online learning course.
A. I wish I have a smartphone so that I can keep up with my classmates on the online learning course.
B. If I have a smartphone, I can keep up with my classmates on the online learning course.
C. Unless I have a smartphone, I can’t keep up with my classmates on the online learning course.
D. If I had a smartphone, I could keep up with my classmates on the online learning course.

Question 2: As soon as James started working, he realized that his decision had not been a good one.
A. Since James did not like his new job, he began looking for a better one.
B. No sooner had James begun his new job than he knew his decision was wrong.
C. Had James not begun his new job, he would have gone looking for a better one.
D. Just before James took up his new post, he realized that he was not suited for it.

Section 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 3: She managed to keep her job ______ the manager threatened to sack her.
A. although
B. because
C. despite
D. in spite of

Question 4: Moc Chau was a very ______ place where we took many pictures of the whole class.
A. beautify
B. beauty
C. beautifully
D. beautiful

Question 5: My husband gave me a(n) ______ car as a birthday present last month.
A. red Japanese expensive
B. red expensive Japanese
C. expensive red Japanese
D. Japanese red expensive

Question 6: I met a man with ______ I used to work.
A. what
B. whom
C. who
D. which

Question 7: Tim is so ______ that his classmates sometimes call him a bookworm.
A. well-paid
B. well-behaved
C. well-built
D. well-informed

Question 8: They did nothing, ______?
A. did them
B. do they
C. did they
D. didn’t they

Question 9: ______ carefully, I decided to accept the job offer.
A. Having think
B. Thought
C. Have thought
D. Having thought

Question 10: It was vital that everything ______ ready by ten o’clock tomorrow.
A. be
B. is
C. will be
D. must be

Question 11: Lan Phuong speaks English ______.
A. the more fluently
B. more and more fluent
C. fluently and fluently
D. more and more fluently

Question 12: Can you ______ me a favor?
A. make
B. take
C. do
D. have

Question 13: She’s too busy to prepare for the job interview, so she’ll just play it by ______.
A. nose
B. mouth
C. hand
D. ear

Question 14: I will call you back ______.
A. after I had arrived at the airport
B. before I arrived at the airport
C. by the time I will arrive at the airport
D. as soon as I arrive at the airport

Question 19: Lam and Lan are talking about their test results.

Lam: “I failed the English test.”

Lan: “______”
A. You’re welcome
B. Better luck next time
C. Congratulations
D. Good idea

Section 4: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 20 to 26.

Travelling around Thailand in the 1990s, William Janssen was impressed with the basic rooftop solar heating systems that were on many homes, where energy from the sun was absorbed by a plate and then used to heat water for the home. Two decades later Janssen developed that basic idea he saw in south-east Asia into a portable device that uses the power from the sun to purify water.
The Desolenator operates as a mobile desalination unit that can take water from different places, such as the sea, rivers, boreholes, and rain, and purify it for human consumption. It is particularly valuable in regions where natural groundwater reserves have been polluted, or where seawater is the only water source available. Janssen saw that there was a need for a sustainable way to clean water for both the developing and the developed countries when he moved to the United Arab Emirates and saw large-scale water processing.
The Desolenator can produce 15 liters of drinking water per day, enough to sustain a family for cooking and drinking. Its main selling point is that unlike standard desalination techniques, it doesn’t require a generated power supply; just sunlight. It measures 120 cm by 90 cm, and it’s easy to transport, thanks to its two wheels. Water enters through a pipe and flows as a thin film between a sheet of double glazing and the surface of a solar panel, where it is heated by the sun. The warm water flows into a small boiler (heated by a solar-powered battery) where it is converted to steam. When the steam cools, it becomes distilled. The device has a very simple filter to trap particles, and this can easily be shaken to remove them.
A recent analysis found that at least two-thirds of the world’s population lives with severe water scarcity for at least a month every year. Janssen says that by 2030 half of the world’s population will be living with water stress – where the demand exceeds the supply over a certain period of time. It is really important that a sustainable solution is brought to the market that is able to help these people,’ he says. ‘Many countries don’t have the money for desalination plants, which are very expensive to build. They don’t have the money to operate them, they are very maintenance intensive, and they don’t have the money to buy the diesel to run the desalination plants, so it is a really bad situation.’
(Adapted from Cambridge English IELTS Academic 15 by Cambridge University Press)

Question 20: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Water Shortage and its Impacts
B. The Desolenator: Producing Clean Water
C. How Thai People Produced Clean Water
D. The Desolenator: An Unfeasible Solution to Water Scarcity

Question 21: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. water
B. The Desolenator
C. unit
D. consumption

Question 22: According to paragraph 1, what did Janssen do after his trip to Thailand?
A. He created a system that purifies water by using electricity.
B. He used the energy coming from sunlight to help the Desolenator operate.
C. He tried to persuade other people to invest in his portable system.
D. He was unwilling to accept the idea of creating clean water in Thailand.

Question 23: The phrase “selling point” in paragraph 3 mostly means ______.
A. advantage
B. downturn
C. impetus
D. impediment

Question 24: The word “distilled” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. contaminated
B. refined
C. disseminated
D. Drained

Question 25: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. The Desolenator can be used in different locations, as it has wheels.
B. The Desolenator could be useful to device to purify water in contaminated groundwater reserves.
C. According to Janssen, many people in the world will face water stress in the future.
D. Some affluent countries have made sustainable efforts to help their inhabitants have access to clean water.

Question 26: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Virtually everyone can easily understand the operation process of the Desolenator.
B. Every household in Thailand has installed solar heating systems.
C. Some countries can’t afford the upkeep of desalination plants, let alone build them.
D. Only those in underdeveloped countries need access to clean water.

Section 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 34: No sooner did he return from a long journey than he was ordered to pack his bags.
A. did he returned
B. from
C. was ordered
D. than

Question 35: Peter was all ears when I told him about my first day at work.
A. listened attentively
B. paid little attention
C. was relaxed
D. paid much attention

Question 36: The company should allow flexible working hours so that its employees can avoid traffic congestion.
A. dangerous
B. changeable
C. careful
D. fixed

Section 9: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 37:
A. divided
B. polluted
C. accepted
D. believed

Question 38:
A. collection
B. combustion
C. situation
D. mention

Section 10: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

In the early 1990s, the psychologist K. Anders Ericsson and two colleagues installed themselves at Berlin’s elite Academy of Music. With the help of the academy’s professors, they (39) ______ the school’s violinists into three groups. First were the students with the potential to become world-class soloists. Second were those judged to be merely ‘good’. Third were the students unlikely ever to play professionally and who intended to be music teachers in schools. All were then asked how (40) ______ hours they had practiced since they first picked up a violin.
Everyone, from all three groups, had started playing at roughly the age of five and practised from two or three hours a week. (41) ______ around the age of eight, differences started to emerge. The students (42) ______ would end up as the best in their class began to practise more than everyone else, until by the age of 20 they were practising well over 30 hours a week. By then, the elite performers had all totaled 10000 hours of practice over the (43) ______ of their lives, the merely good students 8000 hours and the future music teachers just over 4000 hours.
(Adapted from Ready for Advanced by Roy Norris, Amanda French with Miles Hordern)

Question 39:
A. parted
B. shared
C. divided
D. broke

Question 40:
A. adapted
B. few
C. many
D. much

Question 41:
A. Each
B. Few
C. By
D. But

Question 42:
A. which
B. who
C. where
D. whose

Mục đích tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 là gì?

Căn cứ theo quy chế hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và các văn bản hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025, mục đích của kỳ thi là:

– Đánh giá kết quả học tập của học sinh sau 12 năm học theo yêu cầu của chương trình giáo dục phổ thông.

– Lấy kết quả thi để xét công nhận tốt nghiệp trung học phổ thông và làm căn cứ tuyển sinh đại học, cao đẳng.

– Góp phần đánh giá chất lượng giáo dục của địa phương và cả nước, làm cơ sở điều chỉnh nội dung, phương pháp dạy học trong nhà trường.

Thí sinh thi Đại học năm 2025 có bắt buộc thi môn Tiếng Anh không?

Theo quy định hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi tốt nghiệp Đại học năm 2025, thí sinh dự thi phải thực hiện như sau:

– Thi 3 môn bắt buộc: Toán, Ngữ văn và Ngoại ngữ.

– Ngoài ra, thí sinh phải chọn một trong hai bài thi tổ hợp: Khoa học Tự nhiên (gồm các môn Vật lí, Hóa học, Sinh học) hoặc Khoa học Xã hội (gồm các môn Lịch sử, Địa lí, Giáo dục công dân – dành cho học sinh học chương trình giáo dục phổ thông).

Trong số các môn thi, Tiếng Anh là một trong ba môn thuộc bài thi Ngoại ngữ bắt buộc, thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh như một môn bắt buộc, không phụ thuộc vào lựa chọn bài thi tổ hợp hay mục đích xét tuyển đại học.

Như vậy, kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 bắt buộc thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh.