Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – Phòng GD Lục Ngạn

Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – Phòng GD Lục Ngạn là một trong những đề tiêu biểu thuộc Tổng hợp đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh THPT QG, nằm trong chương trình Đề thi vào Đại học.

Đây là một trong những đề thi thử quan trọng được biên soạn bởi Phòng Giáo dục và Đào tạo Lục Ngạn, giúp học sinh lớp 12 kiểm tra năng lực ngôn ngữ toàn diện trước kỳ thi tốt nghiệp THPT Quốc gia. Đề thi bám sát theo cấu trúc chuẩn của Bộ GD&ĐT, gồm các phần quen thuộc như: phát âm – trọng âm, từ vựng – ngữ pháp, chức năng giao tiếp, tìm lỗi sai, đọc hiểu và viết lại câu.

Các kiến thức trọng tâm trong đề thi này thường tập trung vào:

• Các thì trong tiếng Anh,
• Câu điều kiện, mệnh đề quan hệ, câu bị động,
• Từ vựng theo chủ đề và collocations,
• Kỹ năng đọc hiểu nhanh và chính xác.

Đề thi này rất phù hợp để học sinh tự đánh giá khả năng làm bài, rèn luyện tư duy và cải thiện điểm số trước kỳ thi chính thức.

Hãy cùng Dethitracnghiem.vn cùng tìm hiểu về đề thi này và tham gia làm kiểm tra ngay lập tức!

• Số trang: 4 trang
• Hình thức: Trắc nghiệm
• Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2025 PHÒNG GD LỤC NGẠN

LISTENING (2.0 pts)

PART 1. You will hear four short conversations. For each question, you have to choose the correct answer A, B, or C. You will listen to the audio twice.

Question 1: You will hear a boy talking to his teacher. Why didn’t he go to school in the morning?
A. His hand hurt.
B. He felt ill.
C. He had a toothache.

Question 2: You will hear a tennis coach talking to a player. What’s the weather like today?
A. It’s windy.
B. It’s sunny.
C. It’s cloudy.

Question 3: You will hear two friends talking about next weekend. What are they going to do?
A. They’re going shopping.
B. They’re going to a friend’s party.
C. They’re going to a concert.

Question 4: You will hear a teacher talking to her class. Where are they going on the school trip?
A. a lake.
B. a pool.
C. a river.

PART 2. You will hear a teacher telling students about a school trip. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, or C. You will listen to the audio twice.

Question 5: What is the date of the trip?
A. 15th June.
B. 17th June.
C. 24th June.

Question 6: Why do they go on this trip?
A. To learn geography.
B. To clean a forest.
C. To visit a river.

Question 7: Where are they going to meet?
A. At the school gate.
B. Outside the library.
C. Next to the gym.

Question 8: What will they be doing on the coach?
A. Doing a quiz.
B. Singing.
C. Watching films.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Many universities around the world are proud to have long histories and strong traditions. However, very few universities can claim to be among the oldest in the world.
Nalanda University, in Bihar, India, was established around 600 BC. It was most likely the world’s first university. In the past, scholars came from Europe, China, and all over India to learn about science, medicine, the Buddhist religion, and other subjects. The university is in ruins now, but at one time it was an impressive school with temples, classrooms, libraries, and dormitories.
According to the Guinness Book of World Records, the University of Al-Karaouine in Fes, Morocco, is the oldest surviving university in the world. It was probably founded in 859 and became a famous place to study natural sciences. The first university in Europe is definitely the University of Bologna, in Italy. It was one of the few universities in Europe that were not influenced by religion. Professors were forbidden from teaching outside the university, and so students came from all over Europe to study with its famous teachers.

Question 9: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The world’s oldest universities
B. Subjects that are taught at universities
C. Students at the most famous universities
D. Foreign students at ancient universities

Question 10: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. religion
B. medicine
C. science
D. university

Question 11: According to paragraph 2, Nalanda University
A. invited scholars from different countries to teach
B. was destroyed
C. only taught science subjects
D. was the first university in the world

Question 12: The word “founded” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. damaged
B. renamed
C. created
D. recovered

Question 13: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The University of Al-Karaouine still exists in the modern world.
B. Students could learn religion at the University of Nalanda.
C. Teachers at Bologna University weren’t allowed to teach outside.
D. Natural science subjects aren’t taught at the University of Al-Karaouine.

Question 14: Which university was established around 600 BC?
A. The University of Al-Karaouine in Fes, Morocco
B. Nalanda University, in Bihar, India
C. The University of Bologna, in Italy
D. The University of China

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (3.0 pts)

Question 15: My mom is very ______ of shopping online.
A. interested
B. bored
C. fond
D. keen

Question 16: If you don’t know the meaning of this word. Let’s ______ it in a dictionary.
A. look up
B. look after
C. look for
D. turn up

Question 17: A(an) ______ is a person who takes people’s rubbish away.
A. firefighter
B. artisan
C. police officer
D. garbage collector

Question 18: We wanted to travel to Lao Cai, but there was a/an ______. Some big rocks and mud came down the mountain.
A. landslide
B. earthquake
C. tornado
D. flood

Question 19: ______ I had to finish my homework last night, I was really so sleepy.
A. because
B. in spite of
C. though
D. but

Question 20: He ______ around the world in the future.
A. will travel
B. travel
C. is travelling
D. travelled

Question 21: We ______ when the earthquake occurred.
A. are sleeping
B. were sleeping
C. was sleeping
D. slept

Question 22: My father doesn’t mind ______ his weekends doing the household chores.
A. to spending
B. spend
C. to spend
D. spending

Question 23: The book ______ I borrowed from the library is very interesting.
A. who
B. which
C. when
D. whose

Question 24: Tom asked me ______ show him the way to the nearest restaurant.
A. did I can
B. whether I can
C. if I could
D. do I could

Question 25: Lucas drives ______ Simon.
A. as careful as
B. most carefully
C. the more carefully
D. more carefully than

Question 26: Jenny wishes she ______ a lot of money to change her car.
A. have
B. had
C. will have
D. has

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct arrangement of the sentences to make a meaningful paragraph/letter in each of the following questions.

Question 27:
a. Another advantage is that cities often have better public services, such as hospitals and schools, which make life more convenient.
b. Firstly, living in a city gives people more job opportunities because there are more companies and businesses.
c. Lastly, cities have more places for entertainment like cinemas, shopping malls, and parks where people can relax and have fun.
d. In addition to that, public transportation in cities is usually better, making it easier to get around without a car.
e. There are several benefits of living in the city that many people enjoy.
A. e-b-d-a-c
B. c-e-b-d-a
C. e-c-d-b-a
D. d-c-e-a-b

Question 28:
Hi Tom,
a. I’m organizing a picnic at the park this Saturday afternoon, starting at 3 PM. We’ll have a barbecue with burgers and sausages.
b. The park is near my house, on Oak Street, just behind the big supermarket. It’s a great spot for a picnic!
c. Would you like to join us? Some of our friends will be there too. I’m sure it’s going to be lots of fun!
d. If you come, could you bring some drinks like soda or juice? We’ll also have some games after lunch.
Hope you can come and see you soon,
Linda
A. d-a-b-c
B. b-d-a-c
C. a-c-b-d
D. a-d-c-b

Read the following school announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Announcement: Christmas Festival Party
The most wonderful time of the year is here, and we are excited to invite you to our Christmas Festival Party which will be held (29) ______ 24th December. Let’s enjoy (30) ______ exciting evening with many interesting activities.

Date: 24th September (Note: Mismatch with December in text, using December from sentence context)

Time: 7:00 PM

Location: School Playground

Activities: live music, games, special appearance by Santa Claus
Don’t forget to (31) ______ your favorite Christmas outfit, as there will be a Best-Dressed Contest! We look forward to celebrating this special occasion with you!

Question 29:
A. in
B. at
C. on
D. of

Question 30:
A. an
B. a
C. o (zero article)
D. the

Question 31:
A. make
B. provide
C. manage
D. wear

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Millions of Irish people travel to foreign countries on holiday each year. Many people go on package holidays with travel companies (32) ______ they can arrange everything for you. The company (33) ______ your train, plane or bus tickets and finds you a hotel or a flat. In summer, many people go to places (34) ______ the weather is warmer than in Ireland. They go to the beach and swim or sunbathe. Skiing holidays are very popular in winter. Many people travel to countries such as Austria, France, Switzerland, Sweden and Canada to go skiing and snowboarding. Many people also go on more (35) ______ holidays, like wildlife safaris in Africa. Irish people usually have holidays and in winter in Ireland there are a lot of TV programs about holidays. Irish people also have holidays in Ireland. They go to the seaside to swim and sunbathe, or go hiking (36) ______ the country.

Question 32:
A. because
B. because of
C. although
D. despite

Question 33:
A. buys
B. books
C. sells
D. calls

Question 34:
A. which
B. what
C. that
D. where

Question 35:
A. adventures
B. adventure
C. adventurous
D. adventured

Question 36:
A. at
B. from
C. on
D. in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is different from the other three in pronunciation. (0.5 pt)

Question 37:
A. flooded
B. shared
C. joined
D. improved

Question 38:
A. country
B. would
C. enough
D. double

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress. (0.5 pt)

Question 39:
A. electrician
B. community
C. delivery
D. facility

Question 40:
A. destroy
B. erupt
C. describe
D. record

Mục đích tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 là gì?

Căn cứ theo quy chế hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và các văn bản hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025, mục đích của kỳ thi là:

– Đánh giá kết quả học tập của học sinh sau 12 năm học theo yêu cầu của chương trình giáo dục phổ thông.

– Lấy kết quả thi để xét công nhận tốt nghiệp trung học phổ thông và làm căn cứ tuyển sinh đại học, cao đẳng.

– Góp phần đánh giá chất lượng giáo dục của địa phương và cả nước, làm cơ sở điều chỉnh nội dung, phương pháp dạy học trong nhà trường.

Thí sinh thi Đại học năm 2025 có bắt buộc thi môn Tiếng Anh không?

Theo quy định hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi tốt nghiệp Đại học năm 2025, thí sinh dự thi phải thực hiện như sau:

– Thi 3 môn bắt buộc: Toán, Ngữ văn và Ngoại ngữ.

– Ngoài ra, thí sinh phải chọn một trong hai bài thi tổ hợp: Khoa học Tự nhiên (gồm các môn Vật lí, Hóa học, Sinh học) hoặc Khoa học Xã hội (gồm các môn Lịch sử, Địa lí, Giáo dục công dân – dành cho học sinh học chương trình giáo dục phổ thông).

Trong số các môn thi, Tiếng Anh là một trong ba môn thuộc bài thi Ngoại ngữ bắt buộc, thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh như một môn bắt buộc, không phụ thuộc vào lựa chọn bài thi tổ hợp hay mục đích xét tuyển đại học.

Như vậy, kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 bắt buộc thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh.