Đề thi thử Đại học 2025 môn Tiếng Anh – THPT Chuyên Trần Phú – Hải Phòng là một trong những đề tiêu biểu thuộc Tổng hợp đề thi thử môn Tiếng Anh THPT QG, nằm trong chương trình Đề thi vào Đại học. Đây là một tài liệu chất lượng cao đến từ một trong những trường chuyên hàng đầu cả nước – THPT Chuyên Trần Phú (Hải Phòng) – với đề thi được biên soạn công phu, bám sát theo định hướng ra đề chính thức của Bộ GD&ĐT năm 2025.
Đề thi gồm đầy đủ các dạng bài trọng tâm: phát âm – trọng âm, ngữ pháp và từ vựng, đọc hiểu, chức năng giao tiếp, viết lại câu và tìm lỗi sai. Đặc biệt, đề có độ phân hóa cao, phù hợp với mục tiêu xét tuyển vào các trường đại học top đầu. Thí sinh sẽ được kiểm tra khả năng tổng hợp kiến thức, kỹ năng đọc hiểu nhanh và chính xác, cũng như vận dụng linh hoạt các cấu trúc ngữ pháp tiếng Anh.
Hãy cùng Dethitracnghiem.vn khám phá ngay đề thi này và bắt đầu luyện tập để chinh phục kỳ thi Tốt nghiệp THPT Quốc gia 2025 một cách tự tin nhất!
- Số trang: 4 trang
- Hình thức: Trắc nghiệm
- Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2025 THPT CHUYÊN TRẦN PHÚ – HẢI PHÒNG
Read the following passage about endangered languages and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 1 to 8.
Wildlife conservation is a crucial endeavor that aims to protect animal species and their habitats. This effort is essential for maintaining biodiversity and ensuring the health of our ecosystems. Human activities such as deforestation, pollution, and climate change are some of the primary threats to wildlife. Conservation initiatives strive to mitigate these impacts through various strategies.
One significant aspect of wildlife conservation is the establishment of protected areas. National parks, wildlife reserves, and marine protected areas are created to provide safe havens for endangered species. These areas not only protect wildlife but also offer opportunities for scientific research and eco-tourism, which can benefit local economies.
Another important approach is the reintroduction of species into their natural habitats. This method has been successful in bringing several reintroduced populations back from the brink of extinction. Conservationists carefully monitor and support these reintroduced populations to ensure their survival.
Education and awareness campaigns play a pivotal role in wildlife conservation as well. By educating the public about the importance of biodiversity and the threats facing wildlife, these campaigns foster a sense of responsibility and encourage community involvement in conservation efforts.
Technological advancements are also aiding conservation efforts. Innovations such as satellite tracking, DNA analysis, and drone surveillance help researchers gather critical data and monitor wildlife populations more effectively. These tools enable more informed decision-making and efficient conservation strategies.
Promoting sustainable practices, reducing human-wildlife conflicts, and enforcing anti-poaching laws are also integral components of wildlife conservation. These measures contribute to creating a harmonious balance between human activities and the natural world.
Question 1. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Reintroduction of species has never been successful.
B. Education campaigns foster community involvement.
C. Technological advancements are irrelevant to conservation.
D. Only national parks can protect endangered species.
B. Education campaigns foster community involvement.
Question 2. The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to______.
A. reintroduced populations
B. conservationists
C. species
D. natural habitats
A. reintroduced populations
Question 3. In which paragraph does the writer explore modern methods for maintaining endangered species?
A. Paragraph 2
B. Paragraph 5
C. Paragraph 4
D. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 5
Question 4. The word “benefit” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to______.
A. sustain
B. transform
C. hinder
D. advantage
C. hinder
Question 5. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a threat to wildlife?
A. Pollution
B. Climate change
C. Deforestation
D. Urbanization
D. Urbanization
Question 6. In which paragraph does the writer mention a present causal relationship?
A. Paragraph 5
B. Paragraph 3
C. Paragraph 4
D. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 4
Question 7. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 5?
A. Technology could be another way to aid conservation efforts.
B. Technology should be the only focus in wildlife conservation.
C. Technological advancements hinder conservation efforts.
D. There is no alternative to technology in saving wildlife.
A. Technology could be another way to aid conservation efforts.
Question 8. The word “pivotal” in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by ______.
A. crucial
B. trivial
C. irrelevant
D. secondary
A. crucial
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in the following questions from 9 to 13.
Question 9:
a. While education fosters a sense of empathy and tolerance, media outlets can facilitate positive intercultural exchange by presenting narratives that promote understanding.
b. However, the process of integration is not always smooth, as it can give rise to cultural clashes and misunderstandings.
c. In doing so, society can move towards a more inclusive and cohesive future where diversity is seen as a strength rather than a challenge.
d. As the world becomes more interconnected, cultures that once existed in isolation now interact on a daily basis.
e. Governments and policymakers must also ensure that legislation supports multicultural harmony while safeguarding the rights of minority groups.
A. d-e-b-a-c
B. d-b-a-e-c
C. d-b-a-c-e
D. d-e-b-c-a
Question 10:
Hi Inka,
a. Although Fahim is also busy with the new job and we don’t really have much spare time, we’ve spent every minute we got in the house and garden.
b. About what I’ve been doing since we last met, I have mostly been working on the new house and I’m quite occupied with work.
c. We had a bit sunshine this morning, so we made the most of it: I mowed the lawn, trimmed the hedge and watered the plants while Fahim finished painting the fence.
d. Sorry to hear you haven’t been feeling well lately, but it’s good that you’ve seen a doctor, I’m sure it’s nothing serious.
e. I apologize if this email has been boring, but there really isn’t much going on in our lives right now. Anyway, let’s meet up soon.
Hadia
A. a-c-d-b-e
B. a-d-b-c-e
C. d-b-a-c-e
D. b-e-a-d-c
Question 11:
a. Grace: It’s fascinating how Ca Trù has been preserved for centuries. The performances are so rich in history and culture.
b. Alex: Absolutely! It’s wonderful to see such a beautiful part of Vietnamese heritage being kept alive.
c. Grace: Exactly. I love how it combines vocal performances with traditional instruments like “đàn đáy” and “đàn nguyệt”.
d. Alex: Yes, I have! It’s a traditional Vietnamese music genre known for its unique style and poetic lyrics.
A. a-c-b-d
B. c-e-d-b-a
C. c-c-d-a-b
D. c-e-a-b-d
(Note: Options B, C, D contain ‘e’ which is not provided in the sentence list. Option A uses only the provided sentences and forms a logical conversation flow)
A. a-c-b-d
Question 12:
a. My advice to anyone considering starting their own business is to have a clear vision, be prepared for the upcoming challenges and most importantly, don’t be afraid to take risks.
b. Starting my own business has been a dream of mine since I was young, so I decided to take a leap when I graduated from university three years ago.
c. It has been an incredible journey.
d. I have always been driven to create something new and make an impression on the world.
e. Being an entrepreneur requires a lot of hard work and dedication, but it’s all worth it when you see your dream become reality.
A. a-b-c-d-e
B. c-a-d-b-e
C. b-c-d-a-e
D. d-b-c-e-a
Question 13:
a. Mai: It’s my pleasure, Ms Kim. I’m glad you found it of help. If you need any further information, please contact me.
b. Ms Kim: I sure will, Mai. Thanks again.
c. Ms Kim: Mai, thank you for presenting those online courses.
A. b-c-a
B. a-c-b
C. c-b-a
D. c-a-b
Read the following passage about social media and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 14 to 23.
(I) In recent years, social media platforms have become a central part of daily life, offering users countless ways to connect, share, and communicate. (II) While these platforms offer many advantages, experts have noted rising concerns about their effects on mental health, particularly among young people (Smith & Anderson, 2018). (III) Studies reveal that excessive social media use can contribute to feelings of anxiety, depression, and loneliness, despite its intention to promote connection and social interaction (Twenge & Campbell, 2019). (IV) A primary reason for these mental health concerns is the tendency for social media users to compare themselves to others. Platforms like Instagram and Facebook often portray idealized lifestyles, leading users to feel inadequate about their lives.
There is also a growing body of research suggesting a link between social media use and decreased attention spans. When users frequently switch between apps and notifications, their ability to focus for extended periods may diminish (Rosen, 2019). This shift in attention can interfere with productivity, especially in academic and professional settings.
Addressing these challenges requires a multi-faceted approach. Some mental health professionals suggest limiting screen time and setting boundaries, such as “device-free” hours before bedtime. Others recommend engaging in offline activities, like reading or exercising, to minimize reliance on social media while fostering healthier habits. According to psychologists, such strategies can enhance mental resilience and allow for more meaningful, balanced relationships (Robinson & Smith, 2020).
Question 14. The phrase “fear of missing out” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ______.
A. desire to know
B. longing to interact
C. aim of satisfaction
D. worry of exclusion
D. worry of exclusion
Question 15. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Mental health professionals are solely responsible for regulating social media use.
B. Dependence on social media requires a combination of therapeutic techniques.
C. With consistent screen time, individuals can build healthier online habits.
D. A balanced approach is required to mitigate the harmful impacts of social media.
D. A balanced approach is required to mitigate the harmful impacts of social media.
Question 16. The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. notifications
B. researchers
C. users
D. professionals
C. users
Question 17. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Notifications have a minor impact on users’ attention spans.
B. Social media’s primary effect is fostering productivity and interaction.
C. Offline activities can help improve mental health by limiting social media use.
D. Screen time restrictions are not necessary for mental health.
C. Offline activities can help improve mental health by limiting social media use.
Question 18. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Balanced social media usage, along with offline activities, can reduce stress.
B. Social media-related anxiety is often temporary and not very impactful.
C. FOMO and lack of attention are uncommon issues among young users.
D. Social media platforms generally have a positive influence on young users.
A. Balanced social media usage, along with offline activities, can reduce stress.
Question 19. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT an effect of social media on mental health?
A. sleep disruption
B. fear of missing out
C. increased anxiety
D. improved self-esteem
D. improved self-esteem
Question 20. Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
Young people are particularly affected due to their high engagement with these platforms.
A. (II)
B. (I)
C. (IV)
D. (III)
Question 21. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Frequent notifications on social media can decrease users’ attention spans and productivity.
B. Distractions from social media only affect students’ performance negatively.
C. Social media contributes to concentration issues that affect users’ academic achievements.
D. Notifications and app-switching harm the focus needed in professional environments.
A. Frequent notifications on social media can decrease users’ attention spans and productivity.
Question 22. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. The use of social media helps improve relationships and communication but reduces the attention spans of its users.
B. Platforms like Instagram and Facebook serve as effective tools for social bonding, minimizing the effects of anxiety and low self-esteem.
C. Social media, despite its benefits, presents mental health risks like anxiety and distraction, particularly among young users, and managing screen time can mitigate these effects.
D. Social media is harmful to all users, causing loneliness and detachment, and must be restricted in all settings.
Question 23. The word “enhance” in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. diminish
B. reinforce
C. intensify
D. appreciate
A. diminish
Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 29.
EXPLORE THE VIBRANT WORLD OF CULTURE!
Discover the rich tapestry of global cultures at our upcoming festival! This event celebrates diversity through art, music, and cuisine from around the world. (24) ____ numerous talented artists in the past, we invite you (25) ____ yourself in this unforgettable experience.
Join us for a day filled with exciting performances and interactive workshops. To learn (26) ____ different traditions is a privilege for most people (27) ____ to broaden their horizons. Engage with local artisans, taste exotic dishes, and enjoy exquisite music that will (28) ____ your spirits. Our mission is to promote understanding and appreciation of cultural heritage. Don’t miss the chance to connect with people from (29) ____ backgrounds and create lasting memories. Come and experience the beauty of culture in every form together. we can celebrate our shared humanity!
Question 24:
A. Showcased
B. To showcase
C. Showcasing
D. Having showcased
Question 25:
A. to be immersed
B. to immerse
C. immersing
D. to immersing
Question 26:
A. about
B. in
C. from
D. at
Question 27:
A. hoped
B. hoping
C. which hope
D. who hoped
Question 28:
A. lift
B. grow
C. climb
D. rise
Question 29:
A. various
B. variant
C. variable
D. variety
Read the following passage about identity theft and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 30 to 34.
Identity theft – cases where thieves steal your personal data to rip through your bank or credit card accounts is a fast-growing crime. Home office statistics estimate a £1.7 billion loss over the past 12 months, which, in cash terms, is far ahead of mugging. In the US, where the crime is even more rampant, (30) ____. The government believes that there are at least 100,000 identity theft victims every year. Others put the figure significantly higher, identity thieves often stop short of clearing out an account to keep their crime profile low. The only prerequisite is the ability to read and write, (32) ____, but it’s far from essential. I stole several hundred identities in my career. Hastings’ modus operandi, or method of committing identity thefts, was to discover individuals with excellent credit records, (33) ____. By impersonating these pillars of financial rectitude, he borrowed large amounts in their name – money that he never, of course, repaid. It’s easy,’ says Glen Hastings, a reformed identity thief and author of Identity Theft, Inc. In the US, in one identity victim had her details, (34) ____ that a warrant was put out in her name.
Question 30:
A. figures point to a staggering £28 billion a year
B. volumes peak at a staggering £28 billion a year
C. numbers hover around a stunning £28 billion a year
D. statistics amount to a stunning £28 billion a year
Question 31:
A. because they have seen higher numbers in other parts of the world
B. for identity theft is more prevalent in urban areas rather than rural ones
C. since the repercussions are much more far-reaching than expectations
D. as some people may not even know their accounts have been raided
Question 32:
A. Being tech-savvy is also a must in this job
B. It certainly helps to be computer literate
C. Several criminals are found to be young adults
D. Some identity thieves have a dashing appearance
Question 33:
A. by which banks often express gratitude
B. by whom banks often show appreciation
C. for whom banks often show appreciation
D. for which banks often express gratitude
Question 34:
A. enough being combined with a $50,000 criminal spending spree
B. too much familiarized with a $50,000 criminal spending spree
C. so closely associated with a $50,000 criminal spending spree
D. such extremely similar to a
Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 35 to 40.
Engaging in part-time employment can (35) ____ a lot of benefits for teenagers. When taking on a part-time job, teenagers acquire valuable skills and experiences that can shape their personal and professional growth. Managing responsibilities such as teamwork and time management fosters a sense of accountability and (36) ____ among teenagers. Part-time jobs also provide opportunities for them to explore their interests and passions, allowing them to make (37) ____ about their future career paths.
Furthermore, teenagers who work part-time often learn the importance of financial (38) ____ and develop budgeting skills. (39) ____ benefit is that part-time employment can boost their self-esteem as they navigate social interactions and interact with diverse individuals. (40) ____, it is crucial that teenagers balance their work commitments with their academic responsibilities and personal well-being.
Question 35:
A. get over
B. bring forth
C. give away
D. come across
Question 36:
A. ethics strong work
B. work ethics strong
C. strong work ethics
D. strong ethics work
Question 37:
A. contributions
B. decisions
C. concerns
D. influences
Question 38:
A. development
B. capability
C. education
D. literacy
Question 39:
A. Any other
B. Another
C. The other
D. Others
Question 40:
A. Thence
B. Regardless
C. Eventually
D. Henceforth
Mục đích tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 là gì?
Căn cứ theo quy chế hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và các văn bản hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025, mục đích của kỳ thi là:
– Đánh giá kết quả học tập của học sinh sau 12 năm học theo yêu cầu của chương trình giáo dục phổ thông.
– Lấy kết quả thi để xét công nhận tốt nghiệp trung học phổ thông và làm căn cứ tuyển sinh đại học, cao đẳng.
– Góp phần đánh giá chất lượng giáo dục của địa phương và cả nước, làm cơ sở điều chỉnh nội dung, phương pháp dạy học trong nhà trường.
Thí sinh thi Đại học năm 2025 có bắt buộc thi môn Tiếng Anh không?
Theo quy định hiện hành của Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo và hướng dẫn tổ chức kỳ thi tốt nghiệp Đại học năm 2025, thí sinh dự thi phải thực hiện như sau:
– Thi 3 môn bắt buộc: Toán, Ngữ văn và Ngoại ngữ.
– Ngoài ra, thí sinh phải chọn một trong hai bài thi tổ hợp: Khoa học Tự nhiên (gồm các môn Vật lí, Hóa học, Sinh học) hoặc Khoa học Xã hội (gồm các môn Lịch sử, Địa lí, Giáo dục công dân – dành cho học sinh học chương trình giáo dục phổ thông).
Trong số các môn thi, Tiếng Anh là một trong ba môn thuộc bài thi Ngoại ngữ bắt buộc, thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh như một môn bắt buộc, không phụ thuộc vào lựa chọn bài thi tổ hợp hay mục đích xét tuyển đại học.
Như vậy, kỳ thi Đại học năm 2025 bắt buộc thí sinh phải thi môn Tiếng Anh.

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